September 9, 2024
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UGC NET PYQ Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2
UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2

UGC NET PYQ Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2 with detailed explanation.

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Created on By mr.yashraj

UGC NET COMMERCE PYQs PAPER 2

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 2

1 / 100

1)

Pricing of housing loan by a commercial bank may follow the following steps in a logical sequence:

(A) Competitive price determination

(B) Specification of spread

(C) Application of MCLR

(D) Conduct of Credit Assessment

(E) Quoting to prospective borrower

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

2 / 100

2) Presumptive taxation involves which one of the following?

3 / 100

3)

Sequentially arrange the following themes related to globalization of Indian businesses since independence:

(A) FDI in various sectors opened along with slashing of custom duties.

(B) Partial opening of economy to external trade and de-licensing of some key sectors.

(C) Govt.-led investments in large public sector units in steel. chemicals and power.

(D) Indian businesses became competitive and started to reap rewards of various phases of development learning.

(E) Increased government involvement in industry with sustained focus on import substitution.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

4 / 100

4) Which one of the following is a myth about rural markets?

5 / 100

5) The pricing practice to extract all of the consumer surplus from consumers to maximize the total revenue and profits from the sale of a particular quantity of product is called:

6 / 100

6)

As per the Agency Theory of Corporate Governance, which of the following statements are relevant?

(A) Governance approach is materialistic.

(B) Managers are motivated by the principal's objectives.

(C) Interests of the managers and principals converge.

(D) Behaviour pattern is opportunistic.

(E) Owner's attitude is to avoid risks.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

7 / 100

7)

A company should undergo a step-wise process before selecting a final price. Accordingly, arrange the following steps of pricing-policy process to help 'XYZ' company to decide the final price of its product.

(A) Selecting the pricing method.

(B) Examining competitor's costs. prices and offers.

(C) Estimating the demand curve and the probable quantities company will sell at each possible price.

(D) Selecting the pricing objective of the company.

(E) Estimating costs for different levels of output. for different levels of accumulated production experience, and for differentiated marketing offers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

8 / 100

8)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Legal Latin PhraseList II - Description
(A)Consensus ad idem(I)Something in return
(B)Quid pro quo(II)As much as earned
(C)Quantum meruit(III)Buyer beware
(D)Caveate emptor(IV)Meeting of minds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

9 / 100

9)

Arrange the following stages of delegation in correct sequence:

(A) Establish proper controls.

(B) Select the person in light of the job to be done.

(C) Reward effective delegation and successful assumption of authority.

(D) Define assignments and delegate authority in light of results expected.

(E) Maintain open lines of communication.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

10 / 100

10)

Rates of Income Tax under new regime applicable for financial year 2021-22 in India are:

(A) 5%

(B) 10%

(C) 12%

(D) 15%

(E) 20%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

11 / 100

11) If the subject matter of insurance is the ship, the marine insurance is called:

12 / 100

12)

As per Section 68 of the Indian Companies Act, a company may purchase its own shares out of which of the following?

(A) Free reserves

(B) Securities premium account

(C) General reserve

(D) Proceeds of any other shares

(E) Proceeds of same kind of shares

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

13 / 100

13)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Type of ExposureList II - Description
(A)Economic Exposure(I)Potential changes in all future cash flows of a firm that result from unanticipated changes in exchange rates.
(B)Translation Exposure(II)It arises when items of financial statements that are stated in foreign currencies are restated in the home currency of an MNC.
(C)Transaction Exposure(III)It arises when a firm's contract obligations are exposed to unanticipated changes in exchange rate.
(D)Operating Exposure(IV)When a firm's real assets are exposed to unanticipated changes in exchange rates.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

14 / 100

14)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Statistical DistributionList II - Characteristical Expression
(A)Negatively Skewed Distribution(I)Mean = Mode, P(x ≤ μ) = 0.50
(B)Positively Skewed Distribution(II)x̅ > Median > Mode: P > 0.5
(C)Binomial Distribution(III)x̅ < Median < Mode
(D)Normal Distribution(IV)x̅ > Median > Mode

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

15 / 100

15)

Which of the following are key assumptions of Gordon's Dividend Model?

(A) Ke > br

(B) r and Ke are changing

(C) The firm is not all-equity firm

(D) The firm has perpetual life

(E) The retention ratio, once decided, is constant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

16 / 100

16)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Display of goods by a shopkeeper with prices marked on them, is not an offer but an invitation to the public to make an offer to buy the goods.

Statement II: Price quotations, catalogues and advertisements in newspaper for sale of an article do constitute a valid offer.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

17 / 100

17)

Which of the following are key features of prudent accounting concepts and conventions?

(A) It includes revenues and profits in the accounts when they are realised.

(B) It prevents profits from being overstated.

(C) It prevents a trader from more withdrawing from the business than is wise.

(D) Managerial efficiency and expertise.

(E) Good customer relations.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

18 / 100

18)

Match List I with List II:

List I - DescriptionList II - Conceptualisation
(A)Net Stable Funding Ratio(I)Asset Liability Management
(B)Innovative Perpetual Debt Instrument(II)Tier-I capital
(C)Time Maturity Gap(III)Tier - II capital
(D)Risk Weighted Assets(IV)Basel - III norms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

19 / 100

19) Economists' adjustment to reality limited by individual consumers' preferences, intelligence and environmental factors is called:

20 / 100

20)

A contract is discharged by supervening impossibility under which of the following situations?

(A) Destruction of subject matter

(B) Death or disablement of parties

(C) Rescission

(D) Remission

(E) Accord and satisfaction

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

21 / 100

21)

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Internal reliability is described as the consistency of a measure taken at two different points of time.

(B) A distribution is random walk if it has a mean of 0 and variance of 1.

(C) Increase and decrease in scores measured overtime that produce a variance of less than 50% is reliable.

(D) Normal distribution cannot be applied to real life situations.

(E) Factor Analysis supersedes multiple discriminant analysis.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

22 / 100

22) Total revenue of a business firm increases as long as:

23 / 100

23)

Which of the following are thinly veiled disguises that essentially restrict imports?

(A) Voluntary import restrictions

(B) Labeling requirements showing origin and contents

(C) Import tarrifs and quotas

(D) Safety regulations for automobile and electrical equipments

(E) Health regulations for hygiene production and packaging of imported food production

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

24 / 100

24) According to Herzberg's Two Factor Theory, which one of the following is not a maintenance factor?

25 / 100

25)

Steps involved in computation of Book Profit under MAT regime are as follows:

(A) Arrive NP as per statement of P/L A/C of the company.

(B) Specific adjustments in case of merger.

(C) Make adjustments pertaining to OCI items.

(D) Adjust the book profit with stipulated exclusion and inclusion.

(E) Net amount of Book Profit for application of MAT rate

Choose the correct sequence from the options given below:

26 / 100

26)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Policies are guides to action. rather than to thinking.

Statement II: Policies define an area within which a decision is to be made.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

27 / 100

27)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Capital structure is determined within debt capacity of a company and it should not be exceeded.

Reason (R): Debt capacity of a company depends on its ability to generate cash flows. It should generate cash enough to pay lenders' fixed charges and principal sums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

28 / 100

28)

Michael Porter has identified five forces that determine the intrinsic long-term attractiveness of a market. According to the model. which of the following are true?

(A) A segment is unattractive if it already contains numerous aggressive competitors.

(B) A segment is unattractive if it is stable or declining.

(C) A segment is unattractive if it has high entry barriers and low exit barriers.

(D) A segment is unattractive if the company's suppliers are able to raise prices.

(E) A segment is unattractive when there are actual or potent substitutes for the product.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

29 / 100

29) Dimensions of VALSTM framework to include which one of the following?

30 / 100

30)

Under Indian Income Tax Act, allowances which are non-taxable for the individual assessee are:

(A) Sumptuary allowances.

(B) Compensatory allowance paid to judges.

(C) Overtime allowance.

(D) Allowances paid to Govt. employees posted abroad.

(E) Non-practicing allowance.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

31 / 100

31)

A prudent financial policy suggested by Marris Hypothesis to maximize balanced growth of the firm is based on which of following financial ratios?

(A) Return on investment ratio

(B) Debt equity ratio

(C) Return on capital employed ratio

(D) Liquidity ratio

(E) Retention ratio

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

32 / 100

32) Preference share in India is issued by a company for a maximum period of:

33 / 100

33) Which one of the following theories describes FDI flows in ecosystems?

34 / 100

34) Break-even point is not affected with the changes in which one of the following?

35 / 100

35)

Match List I with List II:

List I - International Trade TheoriesList II - Expounders
(A)Absolute Advantage(I)David Ricardo
(B)Factor Endowments(II)Minhas, Leontief et. al.
(C)Factor-Intensity Reversal(III)Adam Smith
(D)Comparative Advantage(IV)Heckscher - Ohlin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

36 / 100

36)

The qualified characteristics determining (constituting) consumer 'rationality' includes which of the following?

(A) Economic selfish motives

(B) Risk-return optimiser

(C) Clarity of preferences

(D) Possession of information

(E) Non-satiation of needs

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

37 / 100

37) The current market price per share of New Age Limited is Rs. 80. The dividend expected a year from now is Rs. 4 and it is expected to grow at a constant rate of 10 percent. The floatation (issue) cost for the new issue will be 8 percent. What is the cost of new equity?

38 / 100

38) From the following, select the right option with reference to the working capital:

39 / 100

39)

Arrange the following steps in the process of GDR Issues:

(A) Registration with prescribed authority

(B) Appointment and vesting of shares with the custodian

(C) Approval of the regulatory authorities

(D) Listing of GDR

(E) GDR allotment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

40 / 100

40)

Arrange the following negotiation rounds of WTO (World Trade Organisation) in reverse chronological order:

(A) Uruguay Round

(B) Geneva Round

(C) Kennedy Round

(D) Doha Round

(E) Tokyo Round

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

41 / 100

41) In case of a warranty, the buyer can:

42 / 100

42) Written plan containing the details regarding the conduct of a particular audit is called:

43 / 100

43)

A price ceiling below the equilibrium price possibly leads to which of the following?

(A) Black marketing

(B) Commodity glut

(C) Shortage of commodity

(D) Commodity export

(E) Price decline

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

44 / 100

44) Which one of the following is an example of Secondary Reserves?

45 / 100

45) When a monopolist switches from charging a single price to perfect price discrimination, it reduces:

46 / 100

46)

Choose the correct options regarding banking:

(A) Chain banking indicates the form of bank cartel that occurs when a small group of people control atleast three banks that are independently chartered.

(B) PAN number is required for deposits in a commercial bank for Rs. 50,000 and above.

(C) Upon detection of counterfeit notes at the counter, the bank can impound the note and issue receipt.

(D) The interest rates on bank's contribution to Rural Infrastructure Development Fund is fixed by NABARD.

(E) RBI Act. 1934 allows the making or issuing of a promissory note expressed to be payable to the bearers thereof.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

47 / 100

47) Under the Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 the amount payable by the declarant U/S 3 on or after April 1, 2020 is:

48 / 100

48) In a statistical experiment, an effect size is described as:

49 / 100

49)

Sequence the following in copyright ecosystem for literary creation under the Indian Copyright Act. 1957:

(A) Public communication

(B) Copyright assignment

(C) Content development

(D) Relinquish copyright

(E) Copyright transmission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

50 / 100

50) The standard error is a statistical measure of:

51 / 100

51)

Logically sequence the following economic entities/identities in understanding the theory of consumer choice:

(A) Budget line

(B) Utility analysis

(C) Demand curve analysis

(D) Indifference curve analysis

(E) Consumer equilibrium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

52 / 100

52)

"If you know the enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles,"

Above statement of Sun Tzu corresponds to which one of the following components of Porter's Five Forces Model?

53 / 100

53) Which one of the following is false with respect to interest rate structure in the Indian money market?

54 / 100

54) A co-efficient of correlation having a value of +0.87 implies that -

55 / 100

55) In Fund Flow Statement, which one of the following is not a valid statement?

56 / 100

56)

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The difference between sample variance and population variance computation is μ replaced by x̅.

(B) Cronbach alpha value less than 0.30 indicates reliability of research instrument.

(C) The value of R2 = 1 may imply that regression is spurious.

(D) The identical observation of sample and population parameters shows that every sample can be substituted as population.

(E) Randomise control trial is a qualitative approach to research.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

57 / 100

57) The banks wherein a majority of depositors are non-residents are called

58 / 100

58)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Marketing managers must calculate customer lifetime values of their customer base to understand their profit implications.

Statement II: Activity - based costing, an accounting technique, is very useful for conducting customer profitability analysis.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

59 / 100

59) Which one of the following motives characterizes dominant organizational climate of university teaching departments/scientific organizations?

60 / 100

60)

Which of the following decision choices are valid in relation to marginal costing?

(A) Costing 'special' or 'one-off opportunity.

(B) Deciding whether to make or buy a product.

(C) Most appropriate technique because of the application of more automation in the industry.

(D) Choosing between competing alternative actions.

(E) Employing a penetration or destroyer pricing strategy.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

61 / 100

61)

"Hospital administration may think that patients want better food. but patients may be more concerned with nurse responsiveness"

Above statement pertains to which one of the following service gaps?

62 / 100

62)

Which of the following constructs hold true for research analysis and design?

(A) Research design is a framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

(B) The choice between qualitative and quantitative methods in a research experiment depends upon Cronbach alpha.

(C) Experiments as source of data is not appropriate for a qualitative study.

(D) Plagarism is the failure of researcher to acknowledge the borrowed material in his/her publication.

(E) Content Analysis is a method commonly used in qualitative research to aid data collection.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

63 / 100

63)

Answer the correct material usage variance from the information given below:

Standard material cost for manufacturing 1000 units of an output is 400 kgs of material at Rs. 2.50 per kg. When 2000 units are produced, it is found that actual consumption was of 825 kgs material at a price of Rs. 2.70 per kg.:

64 / 100

64) A spot sale of a currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency is called which one of the following?

65 / 100

65) Under which one of the following the Basel framework places restrictions on participation by banks in system-wide credit booms with the aim of reducing their losses in credit bust?

66 / 100

66) Which one of the following is not an advantage of organization structure by territory?

67 / 100

67)

From which of the following, employees derive authority?

(A) Position

(B) Experience

(C) Moral worth

(D) Past service

(E) Intelligence

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

68 / 100

68) Arm's length price computation method under 92(C) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 does not include which one of the following?

69 / 100

69)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Ind ASList II - Topic
(A)Ind AS 1(I)Income Taxes
(B)Ind AS 12(II)Related Party Disclosures
(C)Ind AS 24(III)Intangible Assets
(D)Ind AS 38(IV)Presentation of Financial Statements

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

70 / 100

70)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Promotional CampaignList II - Company
(A)#StayStrongMoms(I)Pepsico India
(B)#JeetKiOre(II)Hindustan Unilever (HUL)
(C)#Lets unstereotypeIndia(III)Indian Tobacco Company (ITC)
(D)#Freedomtolove(IV)Brooke Bond India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

71 / 100

71) Which one of the following is a Trade related entry mode in international markets?

72 / 100

72)

Which of the following are essentially anti-competetive agreements as per the Competition Act. 2002 in India?

(A) Exclusive distribution agreement

(B) Resale price maintenance

(C) Exclusive supply agreement

(D) Non-compete agreement

(E) Tie-in agreement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

73 / 100

73)

Match List I with List II:

List I-Personality FactorList II - Bipolar Dimension
(A)Warmth(I)Imaginative vs practical
(B)Abstractedness(II)Controlled vs casual
(C)Openness to change(III)Outgoing vs reserved
(D)Perfectionism(IV)Experimental vs conservative

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

74 / 100

74) Which one of the following is not valid as per the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008?

75 / 100

75)

Which are the major factors that lead to capital rationing?

(A) Imperfection of capital market.

(B) Reluctance to broaden the equity share-base for the fear of losing control.

(C) Inability to manage.

(D) Deficiencies in market information which might affect the availability of capital.

(E) Efficiency of Capital Market.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

76 / 100

76)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Income Tax DispositionList II - Particular/Section
(A)Donation to National Defence Fund(I)Section 140(A)
(B)Hedging of Tax(II)Tax Management
(C)Compliance with Legal Formalities(III)Tax Avoidance
(D)Permanent Account Number (PAN)(IV)100% Deduction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

77 / 100

77)

Why do Central banks intervene to affect exchange rates?

(A) To influence domestic production

(B) To influence trade flows

(C) To influence domestic interest rates

(D) To inject liquidity in domestic markets

(E) To smoothen fluctuations in exchange rates.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

78 / 100

78) If the information sought has been supplied by third party or is treated as confidential by that third party, the third party must give a representation before the PIO in reply to the notice issued to it within how many days from the date of receipt of such notice?

79 / 100

79)

Which of the following factors Favour product standardization in the international markets?

(A) High cost of adaptation.

(B) Variations in conditions of use.

(C) Country of origin effect.

(D) Economies in R & D.

(E) Differences in technical standards.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

80 / 100

80) Banker sale of a mortgage portfolio by setting up a mortgage pass-through securities is an example of:

81 / 100

81)

Match List I with List II:

List I - Nature of goodsList II - Income Elasticity (Ei) of demand
(A) Normal goods(I) Ei is greater than one
(B) Inferior goods(II) Ei is greater than zero
(C) Luxury goods(III) Ei is between zero and one
(D) Necessities(IV) Ei is less than zero

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

82 / 100

82) Which one of the following is not an assumption of a simple linear regression model?

83 / 100

83) Tax holiday under the Income Tax Act 1961 has been used in the context of which one of the following?

84 / 100

84)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Substitution effect is usually much larger than the income effect.

Reason (R): Consumer usually spends only a small portion of her/his income on any one commodity.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

85 / 100

85) Which one of the following tools is not used for forecasting personnel needs (Labour Demand) by an organization?

86 / 100

86)

Who among the following are identified as the Key managerial personnel in the Indian Companies Act, 2013?

(A) Chief Executive Officer

(B) Whole Time Director

(C) Company Secretary

(D) Chief Risk Officer

(E) Manager

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

87 / 100

87) In order to maintain its market share, a market follower can employ:

88 / 100

88)

Under Indian Income Tax Act, in order to claim deduction of interest on home loan for house property, which of the following things need to be taken care of?

(A) The home loan must be used for the purchase/construction of the house property.

(B) The loan must be taken on or after 1st April, 2019.

(C) The amount of loan must be used within 10 days from the date of loan taken.

(D) The purchase or construction must be completed within 5 years from the end of Financial Year in which the loan was taken.

(E) The rate of interest on loan cannot exceed 22%.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

89 / 100

89)

What will be the sequence of steps involved in 'Net Benefit Model of Human Resource Accounting'?

(A) The gross value of services to be rendered in future by the employee in their individual as well as their collective capacity is determined.

(B) The excess of the value of future human resources over the value of future payments is ascertained.

(C) The present value of the net benefit is determined by applying a pre-determined discount rate.

(D) The value of future payments to the employees is determined.

(E) The amount calculated under 'C' will be the value of human resources to the organisation.

Choose the correct sequence from the options given below:

90 / 100

90)

Which of the following are the main platforms for social media?

(A) Search Engines

(B) Online communities and forums

(C) Blogs

(D) Social Networks

(E) Web 1.0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

91 / 100

91)

Read the following passage and answer the question.

GOI has reaffirmed its intent in amendments to the Finance Bill to use tax as a deterrent to speculation in virtual digital assets. The amendments disallow losses on the sale of one crypto asset to be set off against gains on another. No deduction is permitted for any expenditure other than the cost of acquisition for computation of income from sale of cryptos and non-fungible tokens (NFTs). Every transfer of crypto assets will be taxed at the proposed 30% rate, irrespective of whether they are a capital asset or not. Only the proposed 1% rate of tax deducted at source will apply to transactions in digital assets. Penalties have been imposed for taxpayers who have claimed a deduction of surcharge and cess from their taxable income, but have not, on their own accord, paid the tax and interest on the deduction they have claimed.

The inability to set off losses will skew the risk-reward profile of digital assets, and crypto exchanges fear it could push trading activity beyond Indian jurisdiction to decentralized exchanges and foreign platforms accessed through virtual private networks. The industry feels not allowing tax deduction on the costs of mining cryptos will eventually force blockchain companies and the talent they hire to operate outside the country. To the extent that the proposed tax regime drives users from exchanges compliant with know-your-customer (KYC) rules towards underground peer-to-peer platforms, deterrence would be diluted.

Nirmala Sitharaman, in her statement while moving the amendments, has clarified the tax on private digital assets does not indicate GoI’s stance on their legitimacy. The regulatory position could become clearer once the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is ready with its digital currency. Fiat digital currencies, which make transactions and monetary transmission more efficient, are inevitable as the use of cash plateaus in several countries. Speculation, and a reflex to curb it. must not draw attention away from the inherent superiority of digital currencies. This is the future of money.

Question:

Which one of the following is done by the Digital Currency Regulatory Framework?

92 / 100

92)

Read the following passage and answer the question.

GOI has reaffirmed its intent in amendments to the Finance Bill to use tax as a deterrent to speculation in virtual digital assets. The amendments disallow losses on the sale of one crypto asset to be set off against gains on another. No deduction is permitted for any expenditure other than the cost of acquisition for computation of income from sale of cryptos and non-fungible tokens (NFTs). Every transfer of crypto assets will be taxed at the proposed 30% rate, irrespective of whether they are a capital asset or not. Only the proposed 1% rate of tax deducted at source will apply to transactions in digital assets. Penalties have been imposed for taxpayers who have claimed a deduction of surcharge and cess from their taxable income, but have not, on their own accord, paid the tax and interest on the deduction they have claimed.

The inability to set off losses will skew the risk-reward profile of digital assets, and crypto exchanges fear it could push trading activity beyond Indian jurisdiction to decentralized exchanges and foreign platforms accessed through virtual private networks. The industry feels not allowing tax deduction on the costs of mining cryptos will eventually force blockchain companies and the talent they hire to operate outside the country. To the extent that the proposed tax regime drives users from exchanges compliant with know-your-customer (KYC) rules towards underground peer-to-peer platforms, deterrence would be diluted.

Nirmala Sitharaman, in her statement while moving the amendments, has clarified the tax on private digital assets does not indicate GoI’s stance on their legitimacy. The regulatory position could become clearer once the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is ready with its digital currency. Fiat digital currencies, which make transactions and monetary transmission more efficient, are inevitable as the use of cash plateaus in several countries. Speculation, and a reflex to curb it. must not draw attention away from the inherent superiority of digital currencies. This is the future of money.

Question:

Digital currency regulations will result into which one of the following?

93 / 100

93)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the following passage and answer the question.

GOI has reaffirmed its intent in amendments to the Finance Bill to use tax as a deterrent to speculation in virtual digital assets. The amendments disallow losses on the sale of one crypto asset to be set off against gains on another. No deduction is permitted for any expenditure other than the cost of acquisition for computation of income from sale of cryptos and non-fungible tokens (NFTs). Every transfer of crypto assets will be taxed at the proposed 30% rate, irrespective of whether they are a capital asset or not. Only the proposed 1% rate of tax deducted at source will apply to transactions in digital assets. Penalties have been imposed for taxpayers who have claimed a deduction of surcharge and cess from their taxable income, but have not, on their own accord, paid the tax and interest on the deduction they have claimed.

The inability to set off losses will skew the risk-reward profile of digital assets, and crypto exchanges fear it could push trading activity beyond Indian jurisdiction to decentralized exchanges and foreign platforms accessed through virtual private networks. The industry feels not allowing tax deduction on the costs of mining cryptos will eventually force blockchain companies and the talent they hire to operate outside the country. To the extent that the proposed tax regime drives users from exchanges compliant with know-your-customer (KYC) rules towards underground peer-to-peer platforms, deterrence would be diluted.

Nirmala Sitharaman, in her statement while moving the amendments, has clarified the tax on private digital assets does not indicate GoI’s stance on their legitimacy. The regulatory position could become clearer once the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is ready with its digital currency. Fiat digital currencies, which make transactions and monetary transmission more efficient, are inevitable as the use of cash plateaus in several countries. Speculation, and a reflex to curb it. must not draw attention away from the inherent superiority of digital currencies. This is the future of money.

Question:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Non-fungible tokens cannot be splitted.

Statement II: Non-fungible tokens can be replicated at convenience.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

94 / 100

94)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the following passage and answer the question.

GOI has reaffirmed its intent in amendments to the Finance Bill to use tax as a deterrent to speculation in virtual digital assets. The amendments disallow losses on the sale of one crypto asset to be set off against gains on another. No deduction is permitted for any expenditure other than the cost of acquisition for computation of income from sale of cryptos and non-fungible tokens (NFTs). Every transfer of crypto assets will be taxed at the proposed 30% rate, irrespective of whether they are a capital asset or not. Only the proposed 1% rate of tax deducted at source will apply to transactions in digital assets. Penalties have been imposed for taxpayers who have claimed a deduction of surcharge and cess from their taxable income, but have not, on their own accord, paid the tax and interest on the deduction they have claimed.

The inability to set off losses will skew the risk-reward profile of digital assets, and crypto exchanges fear it could push trading activity beyond Indian jurisdiction to decentralized exchanges and foreign platforms accessed through virtual private networks. The industry feels not allowing tax deduction on the costs of mining cryptos will eventually force blockchain companies and the talent they hire to operate outside the country. To the extent that the proposed tax regime drives users from exchanges compliant with know-your-customer (KYC) rules towards underground peer-to-peer platforms, deterrence would be diluted.

Nirmala Sitharaman, in her statement while moving the amendments, has clarified the tax on private digital assets does not indicate GoI’s stance on their legitimacy. The regulatory position could become clearer once the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is ready with its digital currency. Fiat digital currencies, which make transactions and monetary transmission more efficient, are inevitable as the use of cash plateaus in several countries. Speculation, and a reflex to curb it. must not draw attention away from the inherent superiority of digital currencies. This is the future of money.

Question:

Government of India's intent towards virtual digital assets is which one of the following?

95 / 100

95)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the following passage and answer the question.

GOI has reaffirmed its intent in amendments to the Finance Bill to use tax as a deterrent to speculation in virtual digital assets. The amendments disallow losses on the sale of one crypto asset to be set off against gains on another. No deduction is permitted for any expenditure other than the cost of acquisition for computation of income from sale of cryptos and non-fungible tokens (NFTs). Every transfer of crypto assets will be taxed at the proposed 30% rate, irrespective of whether they are a capital asset or not. Only the proposed 1% rate of tax deducted at source will apply to transactions in digital assets. Penalties have been imposed for taxpayers who have claimed a deduction of surcharge and cess from their taxable income, but have not, on their own accord, paid the tax and interest on the deduction they have claimed.

The inability to set off losses will skew the risk-reward profile of digital assets, and crypto exchanges fear it could push trading activity beyond Indian jurisdiction to decentralized exchanges and foreign platforms accessed through virtual private networks. The industry feels not allowing tax deduction on the costs of mining cryptos will eventually force blockchain companies and the talent they hire to operate outside the country. To the extent that the proposed tax regime drives users from exchanges compliant with know-your-customer (KYC) rules towards underground peer-to-peer platforms, deterrence would be diluted.

Nirmala Sitharaman, in her statement while moving the amendments, has clarified the tax on private digital assets does not indicate GoI’s stance on their legitimacy. The regulatory position could become clearer once the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is ready with its digital currency. Fiat digital currencies, which make transactions and monetary transmission more efficient, are inevitable as the use of cash plateaus in several countries. Speculation, and a reflex to curb it. must not draw attention away from the inherent superiority of digital currencies. This is the future of money.

Question:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Crypto exchanges fear that the new amendments could push trading activity beyond Indian jurisdiction to decentralized exchanges.

Reason (R): The new amendments disallow losses on the sale of new crypto asset to be set off against gains on another.

In the light of the above Statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

96 / 100

96)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Read the given passage and answer the question.

Naik, AGM Materials, is fuming and fretting. He bumped into Kamath. GM (Materials), threw the resignation letter on his table. shouted and walked out of the room swiftly.

Naik has reason for his sudden outburst. He has been driven to the wall. Perhaps, details of the story will tell the reasons for Naik's bile and why he put in his papers, barely four months after he took up his present assignment.

The year was 2021 when Naik quit the prestigious SAIL plant at Vishakapatnam. As a manager materials, Naik enjoyed powers - he could even place an order for materials worth Rs. 25 lakh. He needed nobody's prior approval.

Naik joined a pulp-making plant located at Harihar in Karnataka, as AGM Materials. The plant is a part of the multi-product and multiplant-conglomerate owned by a prestigious business house in India.

Obviously, perks, designation and reputation of the conglomerate lured Naik away from the public sector steel monolith.

When he joined the eucalyptus pulp making company. little did Naik realise that he needed prior approval to place an order for materials worth Rs. 12 lakh. He had presumed that he had the authority to place an order by himself worth half the amount of what he used to do at the mega steel maker. He placed the order. materials arrived, were received. accepted and used up in the plant.

Trouble started when the bill for Rs. 12 lakh came from the vendor. The accounts department withheld payment for the reason that the bill was not endorsed by Kamath. Kamath refused to sign on the bill as his approval was not taken by Naik before placing the order.

Naik felt fumigated and cheated. A brief encounter with Kamath only aggravated the problem. Naik was curtly told that he should have known company rules before venturing. Naik decided to quit.

Question:

What is the most ineffective in the organisation?

97 / 100

97)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Read the given passage and answer the question.

Naik, AGM Materials, is fuming and fretting. He bumped into Kamath. GM (Materials), threw the resignation letter on his table. shouted and walked out of the room swiftly.

Naik has reason for his sudden outburst. He has been driven to the wall. Perhaps, details of the story will tell the reasons for Naik's bile and why he put in his papers, barely four months after he took up his present assignment.

The year was 2021 when Naik quit the prestigious SAIL plant at Vishakapatnam. As a manager materials, Naik enjoyed powers - he could even place an order for materials worth Rs. 25 lakh. He needed nobody's prior approval.

Naik joined a pulp-making plant located at Harihar in Karnataka, as AGM Materials. The plant is a part of the multi-product and multiplant-conglomerate owned by a prestigious business house in India.

Obviously, perks, designation and reputation of the conglomerate lured Naik away from the public sector steel monolith.

When he joined the eucalyptus pulp making company. little did Naik realise that he needed prior approval to place an order for materials worth Rs. 12 lakh. He had presumed that he had the authority to place an order by himself worth half the amount of what he used to do at the mega steel maker. He placed the order. materials arrived, were received. accepted and used up in the plant.

Trouble started when the bill for Rs. 12 lakh came from the vendor. The accounts department withheld payment for the reason that the bill was not endorsed by Kamath. Kamath refused to sign on the bill as his approval was not taken by Naik before placing the order.

Naik felt fumigated and cheated. A brief encounter with Kamath only aggravated the problem. Naik was curtly told that he should have known company rules before venturing. Naik decided to quit.

Question:

The job of AGM materials is to

98 / 100

98)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Read the given passage and answer the question.

Naik, AGM Materials, is fuming and fretting. He bumped into Kamath. GM (Materials), threw the resignation letter on his table. shouted and walked out of the room swiftly.

Naik has reason for his sudden outburst. He has been driven to the wall. Perhaps, details of the story will tell the reasons for Naik's bile and why he put in his papers, barely four months after he took up his present assignment.

The year was 2021 when Naik quit the prestigious SAIL plant at Vishakapatnam. As a manager materials, Naik enjoyed powers - he could even place an order for materials worth Rs. 25 lakh. He needed nobody's prior approval.

Naik joined a pulp-making plant located at Harihar in Karnataka, as AGM Materials. The plant is a part of the multi-product and multiplant-conglomerate owned by a prestigious business house in India.

Obviously, perks, designation and reputation of the conglomerate lured Naik away from the public sector steel monolith.

When he joined the eucalyptus pulp making company. little did Naik realise that he needed prior approval to place an order for materials worth Rs. 12 lakh. He had presumed that he had the authority to place an order by himself worth half the amount of what he used to do at the mega steel maker. He placed the order. materials arrived, were received. accepted and used up in the plant.

Trouble started when the bill for Rs. 12 lakh came from the vendor. The accounts department withheld payment for the reason that the bill was not endorsed by Kamath. Kamath refused to sign on the bill as his approval was not taken by Naik before placing the order.

Naik felt fumigated and cheated. A brief encounter with Kamath only aggravated the problem. Naik was curtly told that he should have known company rules before venturing. Naik decided to quit.

Question:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mr. Naik's presumption that he could place an order for materials worth Rs.25 lakh was right.

Statement II: Perks and reputation of the conglomerate were the reasons for Mr. Naik joining the eucalyptus pulp making company.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

99 / 100

99)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Read the given passage and answer the question.

Naik, AGM Materials, is fuming and fretting. He bumped into Kamath. GM (Materials), threw the resignation letter on his table. shouted and walked out of the room swiftly.

Naik has reason for his sudden outburst. He has been driven to the wall. Perhaps, details of the story will tell the reasons for Naik's bile and why he put in his papers, barely four months after he took up his present assignment.

The year was 2021 when Naik quit the prestigious SAIL plant at Vishakapatnam. As a manager materials, Naik enjoyed powers - he could even place an order for materials worth Rs. 25 lakh. He needed nobody's prior approval.

Naik joined a pulp-making plant located at Harihar in Karnataka, as AGM Materials. The plant is a part of the multi-product and multiplant-conglomerate owned by a prestigious business house in India.

Obviously, perks, designation and reputation of the conglomerate lured Naik away from the public sector steel monolith.

When he joined the eucalyptus pulp making company. little did Naik realise that he needed prior approval to place an order for materials worth Rs. 12 lakh. He had presumed that he had the authority to place an order by himself worth half the amount of what he used to do at the mega steel maker. He placed the order. materials arrived, were received. accepted and used up in the plant.

Trouble started when the bill for Rs. 12 lakh came from the vendor. The accounts department withheld payment for the reason that the bill was not endorsed by Kamath. Kamath refused to sign on the bill as his approval was not taken by Naik before placing the order.

Naik felt fumigated and cheated. A brief encounter with Kamath only aggravated the problem. Naik was curtly told that he should have known company rules before venturing. Naik decided to quit.

Question:

As per the passage, who is at fault?

100 / 100

100)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Read the given passage and answer the question.

Naik, AGM Materials, is fuming and fretting. He bumped into Kamath. GM (Materials), threw the resignation letter on his table. shouted and walked out of the room swiftly.

Naik has reason for his sudden outburst. He has been driven to the wall. Perhaps, details of the story will tell the reasons for Naik's bile and why he put in his papers, barely four months after he took up his present assignment.

The year was 2021 when Naik quit the prestigious SAIL plant at Vishakapatnam. As a manager materials, Naik enjoyed powers - he could even place an order for materials worth Rs. 25 lakh. He needed nobody's prior approval.

Naik joined a pulp-making plant located at Harihar in Karnataka, as AGM Materials. The plant is a part of the multi-product and multiplant-conglomerate owned by a prestigious business house in India.

Obviously, perks, designation and reputation of the conglomerate lured Naik away from the public sector steel monolith.

When he joined the eucalyptus pulp making company. little did Naik realise that he needed prior approval to place an order for materials worth Rs. 12 lakh. He had presumed that he had the authority to place an order by himself worth half the amount of what he used to do at the mega steel maker. He placed the order. materials arrived, were received. accepted and used up in the plant.

Trouble started when the bill for Rs. 12 lakh came from the vendor. The accounts department withheld payment for the reason that the bill was not endorsed by Kamath. Kamath refused to sign on the bill as his approval was not taken by Naik before placing the order.

Naik felt fumigated and cheated. A brief encounter with Kamath only aggravated the problem. Naik was curtly told that he should have known company rules before venturing. Naik decided to quit.

Question:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): It was right on the part of accounts department to withheld payment.

Reason (R): Mr. Naik had the authority to place the order for materials worth Rs.25 lakh.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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