September 8, 2024
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UGC NET PYQ Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 1

UGC NET Paper 2 Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 1
UGC NET Paper 2 Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 1
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UGC NET COMMERCE PYQs PAPER 2

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 1

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 29 Sep 2022 Shift 1

1 / 100

1) Which one of the following is not the guiding principle of World Bank regarding its lending operation?

2 / 100

2) Portfolio approach to investing is primarily focused on which of the following:

3 / 100

3) SEBI's 'Skin in the game rule' is applicable to which of the following financial intermediaries?

4 / 100

4) Concentration of all marketing efforts on a small but specific and well defined segment of the population is called:

5 / 100

5) A company does not include the value of skills gained by its employees from training programmes in its annual financial statements. Which one of the following accounting concepts is being applied in this case?

6 / 100

6)

The information with respect to a company is:

EBIT = Rs. 35 lakhs

15% Term loan = Rs. 50 lakhs

Working capital term loan from bank @ 20% = Rs. 30 lakhs

10% Preference share capital = Rs. 10 lakhs

Public deposits accepted @ 14% = Rs. 15 lakhs

Which one among the following is the Interest Coverage Ratio for the company?

7 / 100

7) Which section of the Indian Companies Act, 2013 among the following provides for the appointment of first auditors by the Board of Directors within one month of the date of registration of the company?

8 / 100

8) When the incoming partner cannot bring premium for goodwill, then the necessary adjustment for goodwill is done through which one of the following?

9 / 100

9) Sweezy's kinked demand curve model to explain the price and output determination relates to which type of market structure?

10 / 100

10) Which one of the following is not the assumption for consumer behaviour based on the Ordinal Utility Theory?

11 / 100

11) When the price increase of a commodity is followed by increased total revenue, which one of the following is the price elasticity coefficient?

12 / 100

12) Which one of the following production functions is a long-term production function?

13 / 100

13) As per which one of the following approaches, a firm finances a part of its permanent working capital with short term financing?

14 / 100

14) Which one of the following approaches of capital structure pleads that debt financing initially increases the value of the firm; however excess debt financing beyond a particular point reduces the value of the firm?

15 / 100

15) Which of the following business would most likely use job order costing:

16 / 100

16) A company has 10% perpetual debt of Rs. 1,00,000. The tax rate is 35%. Which one of the following is the after-tax cost of capital assuming that the debt is issued at 10% premium?

17 / 100

17)

While wandering in jungle, King Dushyant married Shankuntala as narrated in the "Abhigyan Shankuntalam". He gave her royal ring which could serve her identity when she would come to meet him, in future. However, she had lost the ring while going to meet him. When she arrived at Dushyant's palace, he failed to recognise her as she did not had the ring.

Which of the following statistical error King Dushyant had committed in this narrative?

18 / 100

18) Which one of the following statistical identities are useful in comparing the two regression equations based on different sample sizes?

19 / 100

19) Which one of the following statements is false?

20 / 100

20) Which one of the following expressions is not correct to calculate the coefficient of correlation between two variables?

21 / 100

21) Which one of the following is not true for Authority?

22 / 100

22) Which one of the tests measures the applicant's, level of knowledge and skill in a particular job in which one he will be appointed?

23 / 100

23) Which one of the following aims at the Task Dimension of organizational change?

24 / 100

24) Multicollinearity in the regression analysis is measured by:

25 / 100

25) Which one of the following distributions aptly describes the ownership of income and property in a capitalist economy?

26 / 100

26) The share capital of an RRB is subscribed by the Central Government, State Government and the Sponsoring Bank in which one of the following ratios?

27 / 100

27) Which one of the following is used for international money transfer?

28 / 100

28) Pricing practice of setting a price target and then developing a product that would allow the firm to maximise total profit at that price is called:

29 / 100

29) Which one of the following pricing method is used in regulated industries?

30 / 100

30) Which one of the following categories of customers are opinion leaders who carefully search for new technologies that might give them a dramatic competitive advantage?

31 / 100

31) Which one of the following is not coordinated in the Vertical Integration of Integrated Marketing Communications?

32 / 100

32) Which one of the following is not a marketing tactic used for designing customer value?

33 / 100

33) Which one from among the following is not a generic strategy as per the generic strategies identified by Porter?

34 / 100

34) Which is the single most important driver of innovation (Gerard. J. Tellis 2013) in a business firm?

35 / 100

35) Which one of the following rights is usually not available to a partner consequent to the dissolution of a firm?

36 / 100

36) Which one of the following duties is not a general duty of directors of a company?

37 / 100

37) A is entitled to children education allowance @ Rs. 80 p.m. per child, for three children, it amounts to Rs. 240 p.m. It will be exempted to the extent to which one of the following under the Indian Income Tax Act?

38 / 100

38) Which one of the following represents empirical generalisations relating to GDP growth and changes in unemployment?

39 / 100

39) If the assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the agriculture income in that case shall be:

40 / 100

40) Amount unutilised in the capital gain scheme for which exemption was claimed under section 54 shall be treated as long-term capital in the previous year?

41 / 100

41)

Currency depreciation in the Indian Rupee in recent times has largely been attributed to:

A. Declining domestic savings

B. Increasing FDI flows

C. Portfolio outflows

D. Higher currency circulation

E. Higher imports and debt servicing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

42 / 100

42)

Which of the following factors restrain Globalization?

A. International economic integration

B. Nationalism

C. Emerging trade barriers

D. Regulatory controls

E. Move towards free marketing systems

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

43 / 100

43)

The purpose (aim) of stock split is to

A. Increase the number of shares

B. Reduce market price per share

C. Arrest share price decline

D. Encourage wider public ownership

E. Reduce impact cost

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

44 / 100

44)

The contribution margin can be increased by which of the following?

A. Increasing the selling price per unit

B. Changing the sales mixture and selling more profitable products for which the P/V ratio is higher

C. Keeping the marginal cost unchanged

D. Increase the amount of fixed assets

E. Decreasing the selling price per unit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

45 / 100

45)

Which among the following information shall be disclosed for all public issues of shares irrespective of their issue price?

A. Earning per share

B. Dividend payout ratio

C. Pre-issue P/E ratio

D. Average return on net worth in last 3 years

E. Net asset value per share based on last balance sheet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

46 / 100

46)

Which of the following statements are true regarding price and output determination under perfect competition?

A. A firm is a price taker

B. In the long run, a firm is in equilibrium when its AR = MR = LAC = LMC

C. A firm is in equilibrium in the short run only when its AC = AR = MR = MC

D. A firm reaches its shut-down point when price goes below its AC

E. A firm fixes the price of its products when AR = MR

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

47 / 100

47)

Which of the following statements regarding the short-term theory of production and cost analysis are false?

A. Economic rent is the same as economic profit

B. Imputed cost is the rent of a hired building

C. When AC = MC, AC is minimum

D. When MC is rising, AC > MC

E. Output is optimum when AC = MC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

48 / 100

48)

Which of the following statements regarding price and output determination under monopoly are correct?

A. A monopoly firm can fix its price anywhere along its demand curve

B. Even during short run when a monopoly firm earns normal profit, it produces less than its optimum capacity

C. The slope of monopoly's MR curve is twice the slope of its AR curve

D. Price discrimination is possible only when demand curves are identical in two markets

E. Equilibrium price of a monopolist is always higher than that of a perfectly competitive firm.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

49 / 100

49)

Which of the following are the components of Mc Kinsey's 7-S framework?

A. Shared values

B. Procurement

C. Strategy

D. Technology Development

E. System

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

50 / 100

50)

The MM hypothesis of the irrelevance of dividends is based on which of the following critical assumptions?

A. Investors are able to forecast future prices and dividends with certainty

B. The firm has a given investment policy which does not change

C. All financing is done through retained earnings

D. There are no taxes

E. Perfect capital markets in which all investors are rational

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

51 / 100

51)

Which of the following are the properties of Binomial distribution?

A. May be symmetrical or skewed

B. Uni-modal, bell-shaped and symmetrical

C. Asymptotic to the x-axis

D. n and p are the two parameters

E. μ and σ are the two parameters

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

52 / 100

52)

Which of the following are the parameters in the Financial Inclusion Index in India?

A. Affordability

B. Availability and usage

C. Ease of access

D. Transparency and disclosure

E. Quality of financial inclusion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

53 / 100

53)

Which of the following forces push up the productivity of employees in an organisation?

A. Difficulty of work

B. Fear of working self out of job

C. Egoistic drive to accomplish

D. Desire for promotion

E. Motive towards doing work

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

54 / 100

54)

According to the Contingency Approach, the factors governing the Span of Management are:

A. Type of work

B. Ability of the manager

C. Ability of the employees

D. Level of management

E. Geographic location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

55 / 100

55)

RBI financial inclusion index (FI-Index) quality parameter captures information on which of the following:

A. Financial literacy

B. Consumer protection

C. Ease of access

D. Availability and usage

E. Inequality and deficiency in service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

56 / 100

56)

Properties of a good point estimator includes which of the following?

A. Stationarity

B. Efficiency

C. Consistency

D. Neutrality

E. Unbiasedness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

57 / 100

57)

Which of the following are the essential elements for defining a business?

A. Dealers

B. Products

C. Markets

D. Competitors

E. Functions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

58 / 100

58)

On which of the following bases buyers are divided in psychographic segmentation?

A. Loyalty status

B. Life style

C. Buyer-readiness stage

D. Values

E. User status

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

59 / 100

59)

Which of the following issues are covered in Social Marketing?

A. Tobacco

B. Family planning

C. Public health

D. Financial well-being

E. Social good

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

60 / 100

60)

Out of the following statements, which are not true in respect of a Limited Liability Partnership?

A. There must be at least one 'Designated member' at all times.

B. Designated members do not have the same rights and duties as any other member.

C. There is no specific requirement to have any non-designated members.

D. A Limited Liability Partnership may be established such that all members are considered to be designated members

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

61 / 100

61)

Which of the following companies cannot be a 'Small Company'?

A. A holding company or a subsidiary company

B. A company registered under Section 8

C. A company or body corporate governed by any Special Act

D. One Person Company (OPC)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

62 / 100

62)

Who are not eligible to get information under the RTI Act from the following?

A. Corporations

B. Associations

C. Companies

D. Citizens

E. Legal entities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

63 / 100

63)

Which of the following cannot use ITR-1 form to file return under the Indian Income Tax Act?

A. An individual who is a director in a company.

B. An individual who has any asset located outside India.

C. An individual whose total income does not exceed Rs. 50,00,000

D. An individual who has income from any source outside India

E. An individual who has any unlisted equity shares at any time during the previous year

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

64 / 100

64)

Which of the following are included in Salary as per Section 17(1) of the Income Tax Act?

A. Wages

B. Any pension or annuity

C. Any interest from Government securities

D. Any gratuity

E. Any advance of salary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

65 / 100

65)

Which of the following are correctly needed to claim exemptions in respect of HRA?

A. Salary

B. Place of residence

C. Standard rent

D. Rent paid

E. HRA received

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

66 / 100

66)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Tariff/Subsidy)

List II

(Explanation)

A.TarifficationI.They have demonstrably adverse effects on other member countries.
B.Prohibited subsidiesII.They act on goods which are contingent upon export performance.
C.Actionable subsidiesIII.Replacement of existing non-tariff restrictions.
D.Non-actionable subsidiesIV.For industrial research in disadvantaged regions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

67 / 100

67)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Type of Costing)

List II

(Description)

A.Marginal CostingI.Integrated approach to determine product features, product price, product costs and product design that helps ensure a company to earn reasonable profit on new products.
B.ABC CostingII.The amount of any given volume of output by which the aggregate costs are changed if the volume of output is increased by one unit.
C.Target CostingIII.Used when identical units are produced through an on-going series of production steps.
D.Process CostingIV.Costing system in which costs being with tracing of activities and then to producing the product.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

68 / 100

68)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Objectives of business firms)

List II

(Suggested by)

A.Sales Revenue maximizationI.K.W. Rothschild
B.Maximization of Firm's growth rateII.Cyert and March
C.Long-term survivalIII.W.J. Baumol
D.Satisfying behaviourIV.Robin Marris

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

69 / 100

69)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Economic framework)

List II

(Description)

A.Stackelberg modelI.The situation in which each player in an oligopolistic market adopts its dominant strategy but could do by cooperating
B.Nash equilibriumII.Conceptualisation for identifying the structural determinants of the intensity of competition and the probability of firms in oligopolistic industries
C.Peter's strategic frameworkIII.If firms are disproportionately powerful the market leader makes the first move and captures two-thirds of the market share, while the follower firm gets only a third of the market share
D.Prisoner's delimaIV.A situation in which each player has chosen his/her optional strategy given the strategy chosen by the other player

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

70 / 100

70)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Formula for test statistic)

List II

(Test)

A.(0E)2/EI.Z-test
B.12n/(n+1) R21/n1 − 3(n + 1)II.H-test (Kruskal-Wallis test)
C.X¯μ/SEIII.F-test (ANOVA)
D.SS between/SS withinIV.Chi-square test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

71 / 100

71)

Match List I with List II

List I

(MBTI Framework-Jungian Aspects)

List II

(Characteristics)

A.SensingI.Relies more on personal values than on impersonal analysis and logic
B.ThinkingII.Would work with known facts than look for possibilities and relationships
C.FeelingIII.Likes a flexible, spontaneous way rather than a planned and orderly way of life
D.PerceivingIV.Relies more on interpersonal analysis and logic than on personal values

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

72 / 100

72)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Entrepreneurial Theory)

List II

(Description)

A.Thomas Cochran's TheoryI.Highlight the self-confidence of a person and the dependency on fortune and external environment for becoming an entrepreneur
B.Rotter's Locus of Control TheoryII.Religious beliefs are the driving or restraining forces for entrepreneurial activity
C.McLelland's TheoryIII.The environment in which an individual is brought up determines his entrepreneurial urge
D.Max Webber's TheoryIV.The need for achievement (nAch) drives and stimulate entrepreneurship

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

73 / 100

73)

Match List I with List II

List I

(PLC Stage)

List II

(Pricing Strategy)

A.DeclineI.Price to match or beat competitors price
B.MaturityII.Charge cost-plus price
C.GrowthIII.Price reduction
D.IntroductionIV.Price to penetrate market

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

74 / 100

74)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Characterstic Business)

List II

(Desription)

A.Cash CowI.The most valuable segments of a company; the parts most wanted by an acquirer
B.Crown JewelsII.A third party friendly to management who helps a company avoid an unwanted takeover with taking over the company on its own
C.Fallen AngelIII.A BCG term for business segment which have a high market share in low growth markets
D.White SquireIV.A bond issued at investment grade whose rating is subsequently dropped to below the investment grade

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

75 / 100

75)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Marketing Concept)

List II

(Description)

A.Brand EquityI.The maximum possible demand for a product when marketing expenditure in the industry is infinite
B.Brand IdentityII.The mental perception and associations of consumers related to a brand
C.Brand ImageIII.The peculiar distinguishing color, design, label of a brand which distinguish brand of a firm
D.Market PotentialIV.A pool of goodwill consumers have related to a brand

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

76 / 100

76)

Arrange the procedure followed for disbursement of export credit in a sequence from the first to the last

A. The bank releases the funds debiting to the packing credit amount and credit to the exporter's account

B. The bank calculates the amount of packing credit to be granted

C. The exporter would be required to send the goods through approved transport and forwarding agency

D. The exporter is required to take adequate insurance

E. Submit an evidence of export

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

77 / 100

77)

Arrange the following steps in a logical sequence of the process of management audit.

A. Identification of responsibility centres

B. Review of organisational structure

C. Reporting

D. Identifying and segregating the objectives of business

E. Review of performance of each responsibility centre

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

78 / 100

78)

Match List I with List II

List I

(Statistical identitiy)

List II

(Description)

A.Power of testI.Maximum level of significance at which the null hypothesis would be accepted
B.Standard errorII.Test for significance of regression equation
C.P-valueIII.Standard deviation of an estimate from a sample
D.F-testIV.The probability that test will lead to rejection of null hypothesis when it is false

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

79 / 100

79)

Arrange the following steps in the design thinking process for an innovative solution to a problem:

A. Ideate

B. Test

C. Empathize

D. Define

E. Prototype

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

80 / 100

80)

What is the correct sequence in :

A. Preference

B. Purchase

C. Awareness and Knowledge

D. Conviction

E. Liking

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

81 / 100

81)

Logically sequence the following stages in the organisational life cycle of a business firm:

A. Expansion

B. Survival

C. Consolidation

D. Start-up

E. Decline

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

82 / 100

82)

Arrange the following ratios in the increasing order of their significance in the prediction of industrial sickness (Altman, 1966):

A. Working capital/Total Assets

B. Retained Earnings/Total Assets

C. Earnings Before Interest and Taxes/Total Assets

D.  Market Value of Equity / Book Value of Total Debt 

E.  Sales / Total Assest 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

83 / 100

83)

Arrange the following stages in the marketing process of an enterprise:

A. Marketing Mix

B. Marketing program implementation

C. Marketing planning

D. Market research

E. Control and evaluation of marketing programs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

84 / 100

84)

Arrange the following process of making of a contract in the chronological sequence from the first to the last.

A. Agreement

B. Promise

C. Offer or proposal

D. Contract

E. Acceptance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

85 / 100

85)

Sequence the procedure for e-filing of ITR-1 and ITR-2

A. Login

B. Register

C. Verification

D. Downloading utility and preparing the Return

E. e-Filing Income Tax Return

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

86 / 100

86)

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: An export processing zone is different from free trade zone as it promotes units primarily devoted to exports.

Reason R: Goods imported to a free trade zone may be re-exported without any processing, in the same form. But goods exported by units in an EPZ are expected to have undergone some value addition by manufacturing.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

87 / 100

87)

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: By switching to long-term government bonds, the investor acquires an asset whose price fluctuates as interest rates vary.

Reason R: Bond prices fall when interest rates rise and rise when interest rates fall.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

88 / 100

88)

Given below are two statements

Statement I: The probable error (P.E.) of the coefficient of correlation (r) is defined as:

PE = (lr2)/n

Statement II: When a null hypothesis is true but the test statistic rejects it, this is known as Type-l error in hypothesis testing.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

89 / 100

89)

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: R2 tends to be smaller for cross sectional data than for the time series data

Reason R: Wider fluctuations in the cross sectional data cause smaller value of R2

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

90 / 100

90)

Given below are two statements

Statement I: In the case of Life Insurance, the insurable interest must be present in the person insured at the time when the event happened.

Statement II: In the case of Fire Insurance, the insurable interest must be present in the object insured at the time when the policy is taken and the event has happened.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

91 / 100

91)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI should neither raise policy rates nor wind up its accommodative policy stance. Yes, inflation has been on the rise, and growth has been setting in. This is the time to consolidate growth, not to be spooked by transient, supply-constrained inflation. Choking off supply-side price shocks is self- defeating. Higher prices will curb demand and stimulate additional supplies, if the prices are allowed to work their way through the system, instead of being choked off through demand suppression. It is only the second-order effect of price shocks in energy, logistics and labour that call for curtailment of demand via higher interest rates.

Far from there being any sign of excess demand, the latest available national income figures suggest squeezed consumption and constrained investment. GDP this fiscal would struggle to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20. The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly unsuited for inflation caused by supply disruptions and a spike in energy prices. The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India. Both the Centre and the states should share the tax cuts. They should take this action, even as they strive to find common ground on bringing energy under the goods and services tax. The government also has the cushion of relatively high import duties that can be pared, to lower prices. Stepping up production to increase supplies is another part of supply-constrained inflation.

There are measures the RBI can take to increase access to credit by micro, small and medium enterprises, other than enhancing liquidity in general in the hope that some would find its way to the small sector. The RBI can do its bit to realise the government mandate for all large companies to purchase their inputs from the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TREDS), for example, if that improves trade finance significantly, some reduction in liquidity would not matter.

Question:

Which one of the following is most desirable to consolidate growth?

92 / 100

92)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI should neither raise policy rates nor wind up its accommodative policy stance. Yes, inflation has been on the rise, and growth has been setting in. This is the time to consolidate growth, not to be spooked by transient, supply-constrained inflation. Choking off supply-side price shocks is self- defeating. Higher prices will curb demand and stimulate additional supplies, if the prices are allowed to work their way through the system, instead of being choked off through demand suppression. It is only the second-order effect of price shocks in energy, logistics and labour that call for curtailment of demand via higher interest rates.

Far from there being any sign of excess demand, the latest available national income figures suggest squeezed consumption and constrained investment. GDP this fiscal would struggle to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20. The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly unsuited for inflation caused by supply disruptions and a spike in energy prices. The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India. Both the Centre and the states should share the tax cuts. They should take this action, even as they strive to find common ground on bringing energy under the goods and services tax. The government also has the cushion of relatively high import duties that can be pared, to lower prices. Stepping up production to increase supplies is another part of supply-constrained inflation.

There are measures the RBI can take to increase access to credit by micro, small and medium enterprises, other than enhancing liquidity in general in the hope that some would find its way to the small sector. The RBI can do its bit to realise the government mandate for all large companies to purchase their inputs from the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TREDS), for example, if that improves trade finance significantly, some reduction in liquidity would not matter.

Question:

Which one of the following statements is not true?

93 / 100

93)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI should neither raise policy rates nor wind up its accommodative policy stance. Yes, inflation has been on the rise, and growth has been setting in. This is the time to consolidate growth, not to be spooked by transient, supply-constrained inflation. Choking off supply-side price shocks is self- defeating. Higher prices will curb demand and stimulate additional supplies, if the prices are allowed to work their way through the system, instead of being choked off through demand suppression. It is only the second-order effect of price shocks in energy, logistics and labour that call for curtailment of demand via higher interest rates.

Far from there being any sign of excess demand, the latest available national income figures suggest squeezed consumption and constrained investment. GDP this fiscal would struggle to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20. The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly unsuited for inflation caused by supply disruptions and a spike in energy prices. The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India. Both the Centre and the states should share the tax cuts. They should take this action, even as they strive to find common ground on bringing energy under the goods and services tax. The government also has the cushion of relatively high import duties that can be pared, to lower prices. Stepping up production to increase supplies is another part of supply-constrained inflation.

There are measures the RBI can take to increase access to credit by micro, small and medium enterprises, other than enhancing liquidity in general in the hope that some would find its way to the small sector. The RBI can do its bit to realise the government mandate for all large companies to purchase their inputs from the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TREDS), for example, if that improves trade finance significantly, some reduction in liquidity would not matter.

Question:

Which of the following measures the RBI can take to consolidate growth?

94 / 100

94)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI should neither raise policy rates nor wind up its accommodative policy stance. Yes, inflation has been on the rise, and growth has been setting in. This is the time to consolidate growth, not to be spooked by transient, supply-constrained inflation. Choking off supply-side price shocks is self- defeating. Higher prices will curb demand and stimulate additional supplies, if the prices are allowed to work their way through the system, instead of being choked off through demand suppression. It is only the second-order effect of price shocks in energy, logistics and labour that call for curtailment of demand via higher interest rates.

Far from there being any sign of excess demand, the latest available national income figures suggest squeezed consumption and constrained investment. GDP this fiscal would struggle to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20. The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly unsuited for inflation caused by supply disruptions and a spike in energy prices. The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India. Both the Centre and the states should share the tax cuts. They should take this action, even as they strive to find common ground on bringing energy under the goods and services tax. The government also has the cushion of relatively high import duties that can be pared, to lower prices. Stepping up production to increase supplies is another part of supply-constrained inflation.

There are measures the RBI can take to increase access to credit by micro, small and medium enterprises, other than enhancing liquidity in general in the hope that some would find its way to the small sector. The RBI can do its bit to realise the government mandate for all large companies to purchase their inputs from the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TREDS), for example, if that improves trade finance significantly, some reduction in liquidity would not matter.

Question:

Which one of the following is the cause of inflation as per the passage?

95 / 100

95)

Comprehension:(Que No. 91 - 95)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI should neither raise policy rates nor wind up its accommodative policy stance. Yes, inflation has been on the rise, and growth has been setting in. This is the time to consolidate growth, not to be spooked by transient, supply-constrained inflation. Choking off supply-side price shocks is self- defeating. Higher prices will curb demand and stimulate additional supplies, if the prices are allowed to work their way through the system, instead of being choked off through demand suppression. It is only the second-order effect of price shocks in energy, logistics and labour that call for curtailment of demand via higher interest rates.

Far from there being any sign of excess demand, the latest available national income figures suggest squeezed consumption and constrained investment. GDP this fiscal would struggle to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20. The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly unsuited for inflation caused by supply disruptions and a spike in energy prices. The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India. Both the Centre and the states should share the tax cuts. They should take this action, even as they strive to find common ground on bringing energy under the goods and services tax. The government also has the cushion of relatively high import duties that can be pared, to lower prices. Stepping up production to increase supplies is another part of supply-constrained inflation.

There are measures the RBI can take to increase access to credit by micro, small and medium enterprises, other than enhancing liquidity in general in the hope that some would find its way to the small sector. The RBI can do its bit to realise the government mandate for all large companies to purchase their inputs from the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TREDS), for example, if that improves trade finance significantly, some reduction in liquidity would not matter.

Question:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly suited for inflation caused by a spike in energy prices.

Reason R: The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

96 / 100

96)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Study the given table and answer the five questions that follow

The following information is available with respect to a company manufacturing a particular product.

Sale price (per unit)Rs. 20
Variable manufacturing cost per unitRs. 11
Variable selling cost per unitRs. 3
Fixed factory overheads (per year)Rs. 5,40,000
Fixed selling costs (per year)Rs. 2,52,000

On the basis of the above information answers the questions that follow:

Question:

Which one of the following is PV ratio for the company?

97 / 100

97)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Study the given table and answer the five questions that follow

The following information is available with respect to a company manufacturing a particular product.

Sale price (per unit)Rs. 20
Variable manufacturing cost per unitRs. 11
Variable selling cost per unitRs. 3
Fixed factory overheads (per year)Rs. 5,40,000
Fixed selling costs (per year)Rs. 2,52,000

On the basis of the above information answers the questions that follow:

Question:

Which one of the following is the break-even point in units for the company?

98 / 100

98)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Study the given table and answer the five questions that follow

The following information is available with respect to a company manufacturing a particular product.

Sale price (per unit)Rs. 20
Variable manufacturing cost per unitRs. 11
Variable selling cost per unitRs. 3
Fixed factory overheads (per year)Rs. 5,40,000
Fixed selling costs (per year)Rs. 2,52,000

On the basis of the above information answers the questions that follow:

Question:

Which one of the following is the break-even point in terms of rupees?

99 / 100

99)

Comprehension:(Que No. 96 - 100)

Study the given table and answer the five questions that follow

The following information is available with respect to a company manufacturing a particular product.

Sale price (per unit)Rs. 20
Variable manufacturing cost per unitRs. 11
Variable selling cost per unitRs. 3
Fixed factory overheads (per year)Rs. 5,40,000
Fixed selling costs (per year)Rs. 2,52,000

On the basis of the above information answers the questions that follow:

Question:

Which one of the following is desired sales volume in units to earn a profit of Rs. 60,000?