27th June 2025 Shift 1:
| Examination: | UGC NET |
| Subject: | COMMERCE (Paper 2) |
| Exam cycle: | 27th June 2025 Shift 1 |
| Types of Paper: | PYQ’s (Previous Year Questions) |
| Which Unit? | Unit 9 Legal Aspects of Business |
Question No.1
Who can file petition to the Tribunal for the Winding up of a Limited Liability Partnership?
A. Secured Creditors
B. LLP or any of its Partners
C. Registrar of Companies
D. Any person authorised by the central Government
E. Any Voluntary Association
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A, B, C Only
- A and B Only
- A, B, C and D Only
- B, C and E Only
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A, B, C and D Only
Key Points
- Who can file a petition to the Tribunal for the winding up of a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)?
- Secured Creditors: They can file a petition if the LLP fails to repay its debts or meet its obligations.
- LLP or its Partners: The LLP itself or any of its partners can apply for winding up due to insolvency or other valid reasons under the LLP Act.
- Registrar of Companies (RoC): The RoC can file a petition if it notices statutory non-compliance by the LLP that warrants its winding up.
- Any Person Authorized by the Central Government: This includes individuals or authorities empowered by the Central Government to file such petitions.
- Option E (Any Voluntary Association) is incorrect because voluntary associations do not have the legal authority to initiate a petition for winding up an LLP.
Additional Information
- Grounds for Winding Up of LLP:
- Inability to Pay Debts: If the LLP cannot repay its creditors, it may be wound up.
- Decision by Partners: Partners may decide to voluntarily wind up the LLP.
- Non-compliance with LLP Act: Serious violations of the LLP Act can lead to winding up.
- Tribunal’s Opinion: If the Tribunal deems it just and equitable to wind up the LLP.
- Role of the Tribunal:
- The Tribunal ensures that the winding-up process adheres to the legal framework of the LLP Act, 2008.
- It protects the interests of creditors, partners, and other stakeholders during the process.
- Registrar of Companies (RoC):
- The RoC monitors LLPs for compliance with statutory requirements.
- In cases of non-compliance, the RoC can recommend or initiate the winding-up process.
Question No.2
What rights does an unpaid seller have against the goods?
A. Right of lien
B. Right to sue for specific performance
C. Right of resale
D. Right of stoppage of goods in transit
E. Right to reorganise possession of goods
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A, B and C Only
- B, C and D Only
- C, D and E Only
- A, C, D Only
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A, C, D Only
Key Points
- Right of Lien
- An unpaid seller has the right to retain possession of the goods until payment is made.
- This applies when the goods are in the seller’s possession and the payment has not been received.
- Right of Resale
- If the buyer defaults on payment, the unpaid seller has the right to resell the goods.
- This right is exercised under specific conditions, such as when the goods are perishable or after giving notice to the buyer.
- Right of Stoppage in Transit
- The seller can stop the goods while they are in transit if the buyer becomes insolvent.
- This right is available until the goods are delivered to the buyer or their agent.
Additional Information
- Unpaid Seller’s Rights
- An unpaid seller is defined as someone who has not received the full price of the goods sold or where the payment has been dishonored.
- These rights are categorized into two broad types:
- Against the Goods: Includes rights of lien, stoppage in transit, and resale.
- Against the Buyer: Includes the right to sue for the price or damages for non-acceptance.
- Rights Not Applicable in This Case
- Right to Sue for Specific Performance: This is not applicable to unpaid sellers as it is generally related to contracts involving unique goods or property.
- Right to Reorganize Possession: This is not a recognized legal right under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.
Question No.3
In case of transmission of shares, which of the following is correct?
A. No instrument of transfer is required.
B. Transmission of securities is generally made without any consideration.
C. Shares continue to be subject to the original liabilities.
D. Transmission takes place on death or insolvency of a holder of securities.
E. Stamp duty is payable on transmission of securities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A, B, C and D Only
- B, C and D Only
- C, D and E Only
- A, B, C Only
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A, B, C, and D Only
Key Points
- No instrument of transfer is required
- In the case of transmission of shares, the legal ownership is transferred due to operation of law, such as inheritance, death, or insolvency.
- Hence, no separate transfer deed or instrument of transfer is required.
- Transmission of securities is generally made without any consideration
- The transfer occurs without monetary consideration since it is based on legal events like inheritance or insolvency.
- Unlike a sale or transfer, transmission does not involve a buyer-seller transaction.
- Shares continue to be subject to the original liabilities
- In a transmission, the shares are still subject to any existing liabilities or obligations attached to them.
- The new holder inherits both the rights and liabilities associated with the shares.
- Transmission takes place on death or insolvency of a holder of securities
- The process of transmission is triggered by events like the death or insolvency of the original shareholder.
- The shares are transferred to the legal heir, nominee, or official assignee as per applicable laws.
Additional Information
- Stamp duty is not payable on transmission
- Unlike the transfer of shares, where stamp duty is applicable, no stamp duty is required in the case of transmission.
- This is because transmission occurs due to operation of law, not through a contractual transfer.
- Nomination simplifies transmission
- If the shareholder has registered a nominee with the company, the transmission process becomes simpler.
- The shares are directly transmitted to the nominee upon the death of the shareholder.
- Documents required for transmission
- For smooth processing, certain documents such as a death certificate (in case of death) or insolvency order (in case of insolvency) are required.
- Other documents like succession certificates, probate, or letters of administration may also be necessary depending on the case.
Question No.4
In India, the term of every utility patent granted shall be of years.
- 10
- 20
- 30
- 50
Solutions:
The correct answer is – 20 years
Key Points
- Utility Patents in India
- The term of a utility patent in India is 20 years from the date of filing of the patent application.
- This term is consistent with international standards set under the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
- The 20-year term applies regardless of whether the application is filed with provisional or complete specifications.
- Legal Basis
- The term is governed by the Patents Act, 1970, specifically under Section 53.
- The act ensures protection of intellectual property rights for inventors during this period.
Additional Information
- Key Provisions of Patents Act, 1970
- The act defines patents as exclusive rights granted for an invention, which must be novel, non-obvious, and industrially applicable.
- It provides protection for inventions across diverse fields, including pharmaceuticals, technology, and manufacturing.
- Patent Renewal
- To maintain the validity of a patent, annual renewal fees must be paid starting from the 3rd year after filing.
- Failure to pay renewal fees results in the lapse of the patent.
- Patent Rights
- The patent holder is granted exclusive rights to prevent others from making, using, selling, or distributing the patented invention without authorization.
- These rights can be monetized through licensing or assignments.
Question No.5
In which of the following year Investor Protection and Education Fund Regulations was issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India?
- 1992
- 1999
- 2003
- 2009
Solutions:
The correct answer is – 2009
Key Points
- Investor Protection and Education Fund Regulations, 2009
- The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced these regulations in 2009 to promote investor awareness and education.
- The purpose was to safeguard investor interests and ensure they are informed about their rights and responsibilities.
- The regulations also aimed at utilizing unclaimed dividends, application money, and other funds to support investor protection initiatives.
- SEBI’s role
- SEBI ensures the implementation of these regulations to maintain the integrity of the securities market.
- The fund is used for activities such as investor education programs and resolving investor grievances.
Additional Information
- Investor Protection Initiatives
- SEBI conducts awareness campaigns to educate retail investors about financial literacy.
- Programs are designed to inform investors about market risks, investment products, and their rights under SEBI regulations.
- Key Features of the Regulations
- The fund includes amounts such as unclaimed dividends, unpaid redemption proceeds, and other leftover investor funds.
- SEBI uses these funds to create resources for grievance redressal, enhance investor education, and conduct training programs.
- Historical Context
- Before 2009, there was a lack of proper utilization of unclaimed funds for investor protection.
- The introduction of these regulations marked a significant step in improving investor confidence in the securities market.
Question No.6
Arrange the following steps involved in the process of Voluntary Liquidation of a Limited Liability Partnership in correct order.
A. Declaration of Solvency
B. Designated Partners’ Meeting
C. Partners’ Meeting
D. Identification of an Insolvency Professional as liquidator
E. Filling of resolutions with registrar of Companies and Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A, B, C, D, E
- C, B, D, A, E
- A, D, B, C, E
- E, D, C, B, A
Solutions:
The correct answer is – Option 3: A, D, B, C, E
Key Points
- Declaration of Solvency (A)
- The process begins with the declaration of solvency by the designated partners.
- This declaration confirms that the LLP is solvent and capable of paying off its debts in full within a specified period.
- Identification of an Insolvency Professional as Liquidator (D)
- A qualified Insolvency Professional is identified to act as the liquidator during the liquidation process.
- This professional oversees the process and ensures compliance with legal requirements.
- Designated Partners’ Meeting (B)
- The designated partners convene a meeting to approve the resolution for voluntary liquidation.
- They also authorize the appointment of the insolvency professional as the liquidator.
- Partners’ Meeting (C)
- A meeting of all partners is held to pass the resolution for voluntary liquidation.
- The resolution must be approved by at least three-fourths of the total partners.
- Filing of Resolutions with the Registrar and IBBI (E)
- The approved resolutions are filed with the Registrar of Companies (RoC) and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
- This step ensures that the liquidation process is officially recorded and legally recognized.
Additional Information
- Voluntary Liquidation of LLP
- The voluntary liquidation process is undertaken when the partners of an LLP decide to wind up the business and settle its obligations.
- It applies only if the LLP is solvent and able to pay its debts.
- Role of Insolvency Professional
- The insolvency professional ensures compliance with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016.
- They prepare reports, manage the distribution of assets, and handle claims of creditors.
- Legal Compliance
- All resolutions and filings must comply with the provisions of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
- Failure to file resolutions with the RoC and IBBI can invalidate the liquidation process.
Question No.7
“Active concealment of fact” is associated with which one of the following?
- Misrepresentation
- Undue influence
- Fraud
- Mistake
Solutions:
The correct answer is – Fraud
Key Points
- Fraud is a deliberate act of deception intended to secure an unfair or unlawful gain.
- The term active concealment of fact refers to hiding or suppressing a material fact that one is legally obligated to disclose.
- Under the Indian Contract Act, fraud includes acts committed with the intent to deceive another party.
- Examples include tampering with documents, hiding defects in products, or providing false information.
- Active concealment is considered fraudulent because it prevents the other party from making informed decisions.
Additional Information
- Misrepresentation
- Refers to the act of making an innocent or negligent false statement of fact.
- Unlike fraud, misrepresentation lacks the intent to deceive.
- It usually results in making the contract voidable at the discretion of the aggrieved party.
- Undue Influence
- Occurs when one party uses their position of power to dominate the will of another party.
- It involves exploiting a relationship of trust or dependency.
- Mistake
- A mistake refers to an erroneous belief about a fact or law.
- It can be classified into two types: unilateral mistake and mutual mistake.
- A mistake generally does not involve deliberate concealment or deception.
Question No.8
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
| A. Section 2 (85) | I. Associate Company |
| B. Section 455 | II. Producer Company |
| C. Section 378A | III. Dormant Company |
| D. Section 2 (6) | IV. Small Company |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
- A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Key Points
- Section 2 (85): Small Company
- Defines a Small Company based on criteria like paid-up share capital and turnover, as specified under the Companies Act, 2013.
- Small companies enjoy certain exemptions and privileges under the Act.
- Section 455: Dormant Company
- Applicable to companies formed for future projects or holding assets without any significant accounting transactions.
- Such companies can apply for the status of a Dormant Company under this provision.
- Section 378A: Producer Company
- Introduced to govern Producer Companies, which consist of agriculturists or producers working together to achieve common goals.
- Focuses on activities such as processing, marketing, and exporting of agricultural produce.
- Section 2 (6): Associate Company
- Defines an Associate Company in which another company has significant influence, but not control.
- Significant influence refers to control of at least 20% of total voting power or participation in decision-making.
Additional Information
- Small Company:
- Exempted from certain provisions like preparing cash flow statements and holding four board meetings annually.
- Eligibility thresholds for turnover and paid-up share capital may change periodically as per government notifications.
- Dormant Company:
- Such companies are inactive but maintain their legal status to carry out future objectives.
- Need to file annual compliance documents, even if dormant.
- Producer Company:
- Governed under Chapter XXIA of the Companies Act, 2013.
- Promotes the economic interests of agricultural producers and rural entrepreneurs.
- Associate Company:
- Important for financial reporting and consolidation under accounting standards.
- Significant influence is determined by investment percentage or contractual arrangements.
Question No.9
What is the primary liability of the drawer of a bill of exchange or cheque?
- Liability to compensate the holder incase of dishonour.
- Liability to pay the amount at maturity.
- Liability to provide sufficient funds to the drawee.
- Liability to pay the holder without any condition.
Solutions:
The correct answer is – Liability to compensate the holder in case of dishonour.
Key Points
- Primary liability of the drawer:
- The drawer of a bill of exchange or cheque is liable to compensate the holder if the instrument is dishonoured.
- Dishonour occurs when the drawee (bank or individual) refuses to accept or pay the instrument.
- This liability arises under the Negotiable Instruments Act, ensuring protection for the holder of the instrument.
- Legal recourse for the holder:
- If dishonour occurs, the holder can initiate legal action against the drawer for compensation.
- The compensation typically includes the principal amount and any legal or incidental costs incurred by the holder.
Additional Information
- Key provisions of the Negotiable Instruments Act:
- Section 30: Specifies the liability of the drawer, stating that the drawer must compensate the holder if the instrument is dishonoured.
- Section 138: Deals with penalties for dishonour of cheques due to insufficient funds or other reasons.
- Other liabilities of the drawer:
- Liability to provide sufficient funds: The drawer must ensure that the drawee (bank) has adequate funds or authority to honour the payment.
- Liability to the payee: The drawer must ensure the instrument is correctly issued and delivered to avoid disputes or errors.
- Dishonour scenarios:
- Dishonour can occur due to insufficient funds, a stop payment order, or incorrect details on the instrument.
- Legal remedies and penalties are designed to protect the holder and maintain trust in negotiable instruments.
Question No.10
Arrange the following steps of incorporation of a new Limited Liability Partnership in proper sequence.
A. Reserve LLP Name
B. Preparation of Documents for Incorporation of LLP
C. Procure Digital Signature Certificate
D. LLP incorporation and DIN Application and apply for PAN and TAN
E. Drafting and filling LLP Agreement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- B, A, C, D, E
- A, B, C, E, D
- C, A, B, D, E
- D, E, B, A, C
Solutions:
The correct answer is – Option 3: C, A, B, D, E
Key Points
- Step 1 – Procure Digital Signature Certificate (C)
- A Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) is essential for signing electronic documents during the LLP incorporation process.
- DSC is required for filing forms with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
- Step 2 – Reserve LLP Name (A)
- The name of the LLP is reserved by filing the LLP Form 1 with the MCA.
- The name must comply with the naming guidelines provided under the LLP Act.
- Step 3 – Preparation of Documents for Incorporation of LLP (B)
- Documents such as the Incorporation Form, address proof, identity proof, and other supporting documents are prepared.
- Details of partners and their contributions are also included.
- Step 4 – LLP Incorporation and DIN Application (D)
- File the LLP Form 2 for incorporation along with the DIN Application for designated partners.
- Simultaneously, apply for PAN and TAN to comply with tax regulations.
- Step 5 – Drafting and Filling LLP Agreement (E)
- The LLP agreement governs the mutual rights and duties of the partners.
- It is filed through Form 3 within 30 days of incorporation.
Additional Information
- Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)
- An LLP is a corporate structure that combines the benefits of a partnership and a company.
- It provides limited liability protection to its partners, unlike traditional partnerships.
- Advantages of LLP
- Flexibility: Partners have the flexibility to manage the LLP as per mutual agreement.
- Separate Legal Entity: The LLP has its own legal identity, separate from its partners.
- Tax Benefits: LLPs are taxed differently from companies, offering potential savings.
- Key Forms for LLP Incorporation
- Form 1: Name Reservation.
- Form 2: LLP Incorporation.
- Form 3: LLP Agreement Filing.
Question No.11
Arrange the following in chronological order of the Milestone achieved by the National Stock Exchange of India
A. Commencement of Trading in Index options
B. Launch of securities Lending and Borrowing Scheme
C. Commencement of Derivatives Trading in Index Futures
D. Launch of Mutual Fund Service System
E. Launch of S & P CNX Nifty
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- B, D, E, A, C
- A, C, E, B, D
- E, A, C, D, B
- E, C, A, B, D
Solutions:
The correct answer is – Option 4: E, C, A, B, D
Key Points
- E: Launch of S & P CNX Nifty
- The S & P CNX Nifty index was launched in 1996. It is a benchmark index of the National Stock Exchange (NSE).
- This was a significant milestone as it provided a standardized index for trading and gauging market performance.
- C: Commencement of Derivatives Trading in Index Futures
- Index futures trading began in 2000, marking the introduction of derivatives trading on NSE.
- It allowed investors to hedge risks and provided new opportunities for speculation and arbitrage.
- A: Commencement of Trading in Index Options
- Trading in index options commenced in 2001, further expanding derivatives market offerings.
- Index options gave traders a choice to bet on market movements with limited risk.
- B: Launch of Securities Lending and Borrowing Scheme
- The Securities Lending and Borrowing Scheme was introduced in 2008.
- This enabled investors to lend and borrow securities, providing liquidity and flexibility in the market.
- D: Launch of Mutual Fund Service System
- Mutual Fund Service System was launched in 2009, simplifying mutual fund transactions.
- This allowed investors to access mutual funds directly through NSE’s infrastructure, boosting retail participation.
Additional Information
- Evolution of NSE
- NSE was established in 1992 to bring transparency and efficiency to the Indian stock market.
- It revolutionized trading by introducing screen-based trading and electronic settlement systems.
- Derivatives Market
- The launch of derivatives trading (futures and options) in the 2000s was a game-changer for the Indian financial markets.
- It allowed investors to manage risks and introduced sophisticated financial tools.
- Mutual Fund Services
- With the launch of the Mutual Fund Service System, NSE simplified mutual fund transactions, encouraging retail investor participation.
- This system was designed to provide a seamless and efficient process for buying and redeeming mutual fund units.
- Securities Lending and Borrowing
- This scheme boosted market liquidity and enabled investors to generate additional returns on idle securities.
- It played a crucial role in supporting short-selling and arbitrage opportunities in the market.