3rd January 2026 Shift 1:
| Examination: | UGC NET |
| Subject: | COMMERCE (Paper 2) |
| Exam cycle: | 3rd January 2026 Shift 1 |
| Types of Paper: | PYQ’s (Previous Year Questions) |
| Which Unit? | Unit 5 Business Statistics and Research Methods |
Question No.1
The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays is:
- 17
- 27
- 37
- 47
Solutions:
The correct answer is – 37
Key Points
- Understanding leap years
- A leap year consists of 366 days, meaning it has 52 complete weeks and 2 extra days.
- The two extra days can be any pair of consecutive days of the week, such as Sunday and Monday, Monday and Tuesday, and so on.
- 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays
- For a day to appear 53 times in a leap year, it must occur on one of the two extra days.
- In a leap year, there are 7 possible combinations of the two extra days:
- Sunday & Monday
- Monday & Tuesday
- Tuesday & Wednesday
- Wednesday & Thursday
- Thursday & Friday
- Friday & Saturday
- Saturday & Sunday
- Out of these combinations, 3 combinations include either Sunday or Monday as one of the extra days:
- Sunday & Monday
- Saturday & Sunday
- Monday & Tuesday
- Probability calculation
- The probability of selecting a combination with either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays is:
- Probability = Favorable outcomesTotal outcomes = 37
Additional Information
- Leap year identification
- A leap year occurs every 4 years, except for years divisible by 100 but not divisible by 400.
- For example, 2000 and 2024 are leap years, but 1900 is not.
- Day distribution in a leap year
- Each week has 7 days, so a leap year has 52 full weeks (52 × 7 = 364 days).
- The remaining 2 days determine the days that will occur 53 times in that year.
- Probability basics
- Probability is defined as the ratio of favorable outcomes to total possible outcomes.
- In this question, the total outcomes are 7 (possible combinations of 2 extra days), and favorable outcomes are 3 (combinations including Sunday or Monday).
Question No.2
Match List – I with List – II.
| List – I | List – II |
| A. Occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected | I. Type II Error |
| B. Occurs when false null hypothesis does not get rejected | II. Type I Error |
| C. Used for data from interval or ratio scales | III. Nonparametric Tests |
| D. Used to test hypotheses with nominal and ordinal data | IV. Parametric Tests |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Key Points
- Type I Error (A-II)
- Occurs when a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected.
- Also known as a false positive error.
- Denoted by the symbol α (alpha).
- Type II Error (B-I)
- Occurs when a false null hypothesis is not rejected.
- Also known as a false negative error.
- Denoted by the symbol β (beta).
- Parametric Tests (C-IV)
- Used for analyzing data from interval or ratio scales.
- Examples include t-tests and ANOVA.
- Assume that the data follows a normal distribution.
- Nonparametric Tests (D-III)
- Used for data measured on nominal or ordinal scales.
- Examples include chi-square tests and Mann-Whitney U tests.
- Do not assume a specific distribution for the data.
Additional Information
- Hypothesis Testing
- Aims to determine whether there is enough evidence to reject a null hypothesis.
- The null hypothesis is a statement of no effect or no difference.
- Error Types
- Type I Error (α)
- The likelihood of rejecting a true null hypothesis.
- Controlled by setting a significance level, typically 0.05 or 5%.
- Type II Error (β)
- The likelihood of failing to reject a false null hypothesis.
- Inversely related to the statistical power of a test (1 – β).
- Type I Error (α)
- Parametric vs. Nonparametric Tests
- Parametric Tests
- Require assumptions about the population distribution (e.g., normality).
- Provide greater statistical power when assumptions are met.
- Nonparametric Tests
- Do not rely on strict distributional assumptions.
- Useful for small sample sizes or non-normal data.
- Parametric Tests
Question No.3
Match List – I with List – II.
| List – I | List – II | ||
| A. | Probable Error of Correlation Coefficient | I. | Explained VariationTotal Variation |
| B. | Standard Error of Correlation Coefficient | II. | Unexplained VariationTotal Variation |
| C. | Coefficient of Determination | III. | 1 – r2√(n) |
| D. | Coefficient of Alienation | IV. | 0.6745 × 1 – r2√(n) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Key Points
- Probable Error of Correlation Coefficient
- Formula: 0.6745 × 1 – r2√(n).
- Used to test the reliability of correlation.
- Hence matched with IV.
- Standard Error of Correlation Coefficient
- Formula: 1 – r2√(n).
- Measures sampling variability of the correlation coefficient.
- Hence matched with III.
- Coefficient of Determination
- Represents Explained Variation / Total Variation.
- Numerically equal to r².
- Hence matched with I.
- Coefficient of Alienation
- Represents Unexplained Variation / Total Variation.
- Equal to 1 − r².
- Hence matched with II.
Additional Information
- Correlation Coefficient (r)
- Ranges between −1 and +1.
- Shows degree and direction of linear relationship.
- Relationship among Measures
- Coefficient of Determination + Coefficient of Alienation = 1.
- i.e., r² + (1 − r²) = 1.
- Use of Probable Error
- If correlation > 6 × Probable Error, correlation is considered significant.
- Helps judge statistical significance of correlation.
- Sample Size Effect
- Larger n (sample size) reduces both standard error and probable error.
Question No.4
If the first quartile is 48 and quartile deviation is 6, the value of median assuming the distribution to be symmetrical is:
- 50
- 52
- 54
- 56
Solutions:
The correct answer is – 54
Key Points
- Quartile Deviation
- The quartile deviation is defined as half the difference between the third quartile (Q3) and the first quartile (Q1).
- Formula: Quartile Deviation = (Q3 – Q1) / 2.
- Symmetrical Distribution
- In a symmetrical distribution, the median is equidistant from the first quartile and the third quartile.
- As per the property of symmetry: Median = Q1 + Quartile Deviation.
- Calculation
- Given data: Q1 = 48, Quartile Deviation = 6.
- Using the formula Median = Q1 + Quartile Deviation:
- Median = 48 + 6 = 54.
Additional Information
- Median in Symmetrical Distributions
- In a symmetrical distribution, the median divides the data into two equal halves.
- The positions of Q1, Median, and Q3 maintain a consistent relationship.
- The formula Median = Q1 + Quartile Deviation is valid only for symmetrical data.
- Quartiles
- Q1: The value below which 25% of the data falls.
- Q3: The value below which 75% of the data falls.
- Quartiles divide the data into four equal parts, each representing 25% of the distribution.
- Other Measures of Central Tendency
- Mean: The arithmetic average of the data.
- Mode: The most frequently occurring value in the data.
- In symmetrical distributions, Mean = Median = Mode.
Question No.5
Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness for a distribution having mean of 6.82, median of 6.8 and standard Deviation of 1.4 is:
- 0.014
- 0.028
- 0.043
- 0.056
Solutions:
The correct answer is – 0.043
Key Points
- Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness Formula
- The formula is given as: Skewness = 3 × (Mean – Median) / Standard Deviation.
- Substitute the given values
- Mean = 6.82
- Median = 6.8
- Standard Deviation = 1.4
- Step-by-step Calculation
- Skewness = 3 × (6.82 – 6.8) / 1.4.
- Skewness = 3 × 0.02 / 1.4.
- Skewness = 0.043.
- Thus, the correct answer is 0.043.
Additional Information
- Understanding Skewness
- It measures the asymmetry of a data distribution.
- If the mean is greater than the median, the distribution is positively skewed.
- If the mean is less than the median, the distribution is negatively skewed.
- Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness
- It is a measure of skewness that uses the mean, median, and standard deviation of the distribution.
- The formula is simple and widely used for quick estimation of skewness.
- Significance in Statistics
- Skewness helps in understanding whether a distribution is symmetrical or not.
- It is important for determining the shape of data in probability and data analysis.
Question No.6
Arrange the following steps of research process in correct order :
A. Developing an approach to the problem
B. Problem definition
C. Data Collection, Preparation and analysis
D. Research design formulation
E. Report writing and presentation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A, B, C, D, E
- B, A, D, C, E
- D, B, A, E, C
- A, B, D, E, C
Solutions:
The correct answer is – B, A, D, C, E
Key Points
- Problem definition (B) is the first step as it involves clearly identifying the research problem or objective.
- Developing an approach to the problem (A) comes next, where a framework for solving the problem is established through literature review or theoretical understanding.
- Research design formulation (D) is the third step where the methodology and techniques for data collection and analysis are planned.
- Data Collection, Preparation, and Analysis (C) follows, which involves gathering, cleaning, and analyzing the data as per the research design.
- Report writing and presentation (E) is the final step where the results are documented and presented effectively.
Additional Information
- Problem Definition
- It forms the foundation of the research process by identifying the research objective or issue to address.
- Common tools include stakeholder interviews and exploratory studies.
- Approach Development
- This step includes framing hypotheses and identifying variables to be studied.
- It often involves extensive literature review and theoretical modeling.
- Research Design
- Includes determining sample size, data collection methods (qualitative or quantitative), and statistical techniques.
- Ensures reliability and validity of the research outcomes.
- Data Collection and Analysis
- Data is collected through surveys, experiments, or observations and is then cleaned for errors or inconsistencies.
- Various statistical methods are used to draw meaningful insights.
- Report Writing
- Findings are documented in a structured format for stakeholders.
- Includes visual aids like graphs and tables for better comprehension.
Question No.7
Which of the following sections of research reports contains Executive Summary ?
- Prefatory Information
- Introductory Information
- Main Research Body
- Supplementary Information
Solutions:
The correct answer is – Prefatory Information
Key Points
- Executive Summary
- The Executive Summary is a brief overview of the entire research report.
- It provides a concise summary of the objectives, methods, key findings, and conclusions.
- This section is often included in the Prefatory Information to give readers an overview before delving into the detailed content.
- Position of Prefatory Information
- The Prefatory Information section is the first part of a research report, preceding the main content.
- It typically includes components like the title page, acknowledgments, table of contents, and the Executive Summary.
Additional Information
- Components of a Research Report
- Prefatory Information:
- Includes the Executive Summary, acknowledgments, and table of contents.
- Introductory Information:
- Outlines the background, objectives, and the scope of the research.
- Main Research Body:
- Includes detailed sections such as the literature review, methodology, and data analysis.
- Supplementary Information:
- Contains appendices, references, and other supporting documents.
- Prefatory Information:
- Purpose of the Executive Summary
- The Executive Summary aims to provide readers with a quick understanding of the research without needing to read the entire report.
- It is essential for decision-makers who may not have time to review the entire document.
Question No.8
Which of the followings are properties of Normal Distribution ?
A. The normal curve approaches the x-axis asymptotically as we proceed in either direction away from the mean.
B. The normal curve has its points of inflection at X ± 2σ
C. Irrespective of the shape, the total area under the normal curve and above the horizontal axis is always equal to 1
D. About 68.27% of the total area under the normal curve is covered from μ-2σ to μ+2σ.
E. The normal distribution is unimodal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A, B and E Only
- B, C and D Only
- C, D and E Only
- A, C and E Only
Solutions:
The correct answer is – A, C and E Only
Key Points
- The normal curve approaches the x-axis asymptotically
- The curve never touches the x-axis but gets infinitely close as it moves away from the mean.
- This property ensures that the normal distribution covers the entire range of possible values.
- Irrespective of the shape, the total area under the curve is always 1
- The total probability represented by the normal distribution equals 1, making it a valid probability distribution.
- This property ensures that the sum of probabilities over all possible values is conserved.
- The normal distribution is unimodal
- The curve has a single peak, which corresponds to the mean of the distribution.
- Unimodal distributions are key for modeling symmetric data around a central value.
Additional Information
- Points of inflection
- For a normal distribution, the points of inflection occur at μ ± σ, not μ ± 2σ.
- These are the points where the curve changes from concave to convex or vice versa.
- Area under the curve
- About 68.27% of the area lies within μ ± σ, not μ ± 2σ.
- Within μ ± 2σ, approximately 95.45% of the total area is covered.
Question No.9
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Filter questions in questionnaire measure the familiarity of the respondents with the topic of research.
Reason (R): Questions that try to capture multiple information at once are referred to as leading questions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
- (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Solutions:
The correct answer is – (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Key Points
- Filter Questions
- Filter questions are designed to assess the familiarity or prior experience of respondents with the topic of research.
- They help to filter out responses from individuals who are not relevant to a specific part of the questionnaire.
- For example, a filter question might ask, “Have you ever used this product?” before asking detailed questions about the product.
- Assertion (A) is Correct
- The statement that filter questions measure the familiarity of respondents is accurate and aligns with the purpose of such questions in research.
- Reason (R) is Incorrect
- Leading questions do not capture multiple pieces of information at once. Instead, they are questions that are phrased in a way to suggest a particular answer or influence the respondent’s response.
- For example, a leading question might be, “Don’t you think this product is great?”
- Questions that capture multiple pieces of information are known as double-barreled questions, not leading questions.
Additional Information
- Types of Questions in Questionnaires
- Filter Questions
- Used to determine if a respondent qualifies to answer subsequent questions.
- Ensures that the questionnaire is relevant to the respondent.
- Leading Questions
- Designed in a way that subtly guides respondents to a particular answer.
- Example: “Don’t you agree that this policy is beneficial?”
- Double-Barreled Questions
- Attempt to ask about two topics in a single question, leading to confusion or incomplete responses.
- Example: “Do you like the product’s design and price?”
- Filter Questions
- Importance of Question Design
- Well-designed questions ensure accurate data collection and prevent bias.
- Avoiding leading and double-barreled questions enhances the validity of research findings.
Question No.10
Arrange the following steps of Sampling Design Process in correct order :
A. Determine the sample size
B. Select a sampling technique
C. Selection of sampling frame
D. Target Population definitions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A, B, C, D
- D, C, B, A
- C, D, B, A
- B, D, C, A
Solutions:
The correct answer is – D, C, B, A
Key Points
- Sampling design process involves a series of logical steps to ensure accurate representation of the target population.
- Step 1: Target population definitions
- Clearly define the group of individuals or entities to be studied.
- This step ensures the research focuses on the relevant population.
- Step 2: Selection of sampling frame
- Choose a list or database that represents the target population.
- The sampling frame must be precise to avoid bias or errors.
- Step 3: Select a sampling technique
- Decide on the appropriate method, such as random sampling, stratified sampling, etc.
- The technique depends on the nature of the research and objectives.
- Step 4: Determine the sample size
- Calculate the number of participants required for reliable results.
- The sample size must balance precision with practical considerations like cost and time.
Additional Information
- Importance of sampling design
- Ensures representativeness of the sample to generalize findings to the population.
- Minimizes bias and increases the reliability of research results.
- Sampling techniques
- Probability sampling: Every individual has an equal chance of selection (e.g., random sampling).
- Non-probability sampling: Selection based on subjective judgment or convenience (e.g., convenience sampling).
- Factors affecting sample size
- Desired level of accuracy and confidence.
- Variability in the population.
- Available resources such as time and budget.