September 6, 2024
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UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 13th June 2023 Shift 1

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 13th June 2023 Shift 1
UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 13th June 2023 Shift 1
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UGC NET COMMERCE PYQs PAPER 2

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 13th June 2023 Shift 1

UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 13th June 2023 Shift 1

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1)

For customers, which are the areas of ethical and social responsibility concerns?

A. Product Safety

B. Fair Price

C. Fair Wages

D. TQM

E. Proper disclosures and information

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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2)

As suggested by Collins, arrange the following leadership levels in the sequentially higher order.

A. The leader is a competent manager

B. The leader is an executive

C. The leader is a highly capable individual

D. The leader is an effective leader

E. The leader is a contributing team member.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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3) In the case of two variables. the estimated regression equation is ŷ = 60 + 5x. The total sum of squares is 15730 and the sum of squares due to error is 1530. The estimated regression line based on this information is a ______.

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4)

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.

Assertion A: When a partner retires, all the assets and liabilities are revalued according to current value.

Reason R: The balance sheet should show the correct values of assets and liabilities.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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5)

Which are the appropriate tax planning perspectives in case of shutdown or continued decision under the Income Tax Act, of 1961?

A. Business loss and unabsorbed depreciation can be carried forward and set off against profit and gain.

B. The loss-making company and profit-making company may merge to avail of the tax benefit

C. Tax benefit of deduction u/s 33 AB and 115 VT may be withdrawn and liable to tax for the year in which the business is discontinued.

D. The condition of section 80 IB / 80 IC of the Act, a deduction is allowed for such undertaking

E. If a person has more than one business, the loss-making business may not be discontinued.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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6) A letter of acceptance sufficiently stamped and duly addressed is put into the course of transmission. There is a _______.

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7) Match List I with List II.

List I (A.T. Kearney Globalization Index)

List II (Variables)

A.

Economic Integration

I.

International Tourism and Travel

B.

Personal Integration

II.

Internet users

C.

Technological Integration

III.

Foreign Direct Investment

D.

Political Integration

IV.

Ratification and multilateral treaties

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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8) In which of the following segmentation criteria? the predictability of consumer choice behavior is the highest?

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9) Match List I with List II.

List I (Accounting Concepts)

List II (Purpose/Applicability) 

A.

Going Concern Concept

I.

The same accounting method used by a firm from one period to another

B.

Consistency

II.

Relate to the relative size or importance of an item or event

C.

Cost concept

III.

This an inappropriate assumption for a firm undergoing bankruptcy

D.

Materiality

IV.

The normal basis used to account for assets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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10)

Which of the following are skills and capabilities-related competencies?

A. Analysis

B. Intellectual curiosity

C. Organization

D. Problem-solving

E. Ownership of assignments

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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11) Experimental treatment in research design signifies which of the following?

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12) which one of the following is the hiring-related turnover cost when an employee quits an organization?

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13)

Which of the following one considered as supply factors affecting the flow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):

A. Customer Access

B. Economic Priorities

C. Resource Availability

D. Avoidance of Trade Barrier

E. Logistics

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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14) Which of the following forms of market organization is the most prevalent in the manufacturing sector?

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15)

An agent is personally liable to third parties in which of the following situations?

A. If an agent acts for an undisclosed Principal

B. Trade usage and customs make the agent personally liable

C. If an agent signs a contract in the Principal's name

D. If an agent acts for the named Principal

E. If an agent works for a foreign Principal.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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16)

Which of the following are the disadvantages of a straight salary sales compensation plan?

A. Sales volume is emphasized over profits

B. Sales representative may overstock the customer

C. Low motivational impact

D. Difficult to attract or retain top sales performers

E. Sales representatives may focus on products that require the least effort to sell

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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17) The total return for an equity stock during a year was 12.5 percent. The rate of inflation during that year was 3.5 percent. The real (inflation-adjusted) return was:

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18)

In case of the presence of outliers in a data set, which of the following can better measure the central tendency?

A. Mode

B. Trimmed Mean

C. Arithmetic Mean

D. Median

E. Harmonic Mean

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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19) Match List I with List II.

List I (Non-parametric test (Counterpart of parameter test)

List II (Parametric test)

A.

Friedman Test

I.

One-way ANOVA

B.

Mann- Whitney U Test

II.

t-test

C.

Kriskal Wallis Test

III.

Paired t-rest

D.

Wilcoxon Signed Rank Test

IV.

two-way ANOVA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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20)

Which of the following are the reasons for manufacturers and retailers to brand their offerings?

A. Helps to gauge the level of product quality

B. Enables premium pricing

C. Contributes to corporate identity programs

D. Informs about the source of a product

E. Develops customer loyalty.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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21)

From the operational point of view, which is the part of Environmental Audit

A. Environment Management System Audit

B. Social Audit

C. Compliance Audit

D. Site Property Audit

E. Energy Audit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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22) X was appointed on 1st July 2022 as a lecturer at a University. He was continued on 30th April 2023. What would be the duration of the previous year for the assessment year 2023-24 for the computation of income under the head Salary?

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23)

According to the theory of contestable markets, vigorous competition can take place even among few sellers if _______ and ______

A. Product is differentiated

B. Demand is infinitely elastic

C. Entry into the market is absolutely free

D. There are strong entry-exit barriers

E. Exit from the market is entirely costless.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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24) The doctrine of 'Caveat emptor’ applies in which of the following situations?

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25)

From the following information, you are required to compute the Return on Total Capital employed.

Net Profit Rs. 100,000

Provision for tax Rs. 100,000

Income from Investment Rs. 10,000

Fixed Assets Rs. 450,000

Current assets Rs. 1,50,000

Interest on debenture Rs. 10,000

Reserves Rs. 100,000

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26) Which of the following is not the limitation of activity-based costing?

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27)

Arrange the steps of process costing from beginning and ending with the work-in-process inventory

A. Summarize total costs to account for work-in-process inventory

B. Compute output in terms of equivalent unit

C. Compute cost per equivalent unit

D. Summarize the flow of physical units (of output)

E. Assign total cost to units completed and to units in ending work in process.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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28)

Under which of the following market structures, products are differentiated and close substitutes?

A. Perfect competition

B. Monopolistic competition

C. Oligopoly

D. Duopoly

E. Monopoly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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29) The substitution effect is usually larger than the income effect in the real world because ______.

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30) Match List I with List II.

List I (Schedules under the Companies Act, 2013)

List II (Underlying themes)

A.

Schedule I

I.

Computation of Depreciation

B.

Schedule II

II.

Code for Independent Directors

C.

Schedule III

III.

Memorandum of Association

D.

Schedule IV

IV.

Preparation of Balance sheet and statement of profit and loss

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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31)

Which of the following is correct for Agricultural Income?

A. Income from self-grown grass, trees, bamboo

B. Rent and Rates derived from land

C. Income from making the produce fit for marketing

D. Income from land used for storing agricultural produce

E. Income from farmhouse

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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32) Match List I with List II.

List I (Technique) 

List II (Feature)

A.

Pooling

I.

Setting up production facilities in a number of countries

B.

Financial hedge

II.

Reduction of Foreign exchange risk through leading and lagging

C.

Natural hedge

III.

Simultaneous borrowing and lending in two different currencies

D.

Netting

IV.

Holding and managing of cash by the affiliates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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33) Which of the following describes an intervention currency :

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34)

If the application for information is rejected under the Right to Information Act 2005, the CPIO/SPIO is obligated which of the following to furnish the person seeking the information?

A. Power and functions of the Information Commission

B. Reasons for such rejection

C. Obligation of public authorities

D. The particulars of the appellant authority

E. The period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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35)

Arrange the following goods and services in the increasing order of the underlying income elasticity of demand.

A. Normal consumption goods

B. Necessities

C. Luxuries

D. Inferior goods

E. Services

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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36)

The assumptions of Purchasing Power Parity Theory include:

A. No costs for converting one currency to another

B. No restrictions on the movement of capital between countries

C. No restrictions on the movement of commodities between countries

D. No transaction costs for buying and selling financial security

E. No transportation costs for transporting a commodity from one country to another.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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37) Regional Economic Integration is an attempt to achieve economic gains from the free flow of trade and investment between countries. One such association is NAFTA. NAFTA comprises the following countries:

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38) Which one of the following normative ethical theories has "Net benefit from the decision” as a consideration in ethical decision-making?

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39) The optimal capital budget of a firm is reflected by the intersection point of

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40) "It is an art of dodging tax without actually breaking the law". This is related to:

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41) Which one of the following is a fully owned subsidiary of the R.B.I.?

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42) In which of the following balance of payment accounts changes in holdings of gold and foreign currencies by official monetary institutions are accounted for?

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43) Which one of the advertising planning strategies is suitable for cars and appliances?

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44) A population has a mean of 200 and a standard deviation of 50. Suppose a simple random sample of size 100 is selected then the probability that the sample mean will be ± 5 of the population mean is _______.

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45)

The problem-definition process involves the following steps. Arrange them in a logical sequence.

A. Determine the unit of analysis

B. Determine the relevant variables

C. Write managerial decision statement and research objectives

D. Write research question and/or research hypothesis

E. Identify key problems

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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46)

Which of the following causes the demand for a product to increase?

A. an increase in consumer's income

B. an increase in the prices of substitutes

C. an increase in the price of complements

D. An increase in the number of substitutes

E. an increased taste for the commodity.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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47)

Arrange the following advance payment of tax in ascending order (Section 207 to Section 211) of the Income Tax Act. 1961.

A. Instalment of advance tax and due date

B. Liability for payment of Advance Tax

C. Payment of advance tax by the assessee on their own record

D. Condition of liability to pay advance tax

E. Computation of advance tax

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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48)

Which of the interventions can be used to manage the anxiety created by mergers and acquisitions

A. Speed-up of the integration process

B. Articulate a new vision, common goals, and organizational symbols

C. Employee counseling and stress management training

D. Disengage efforts such as termination ceremonies

E. Social support from spouse, friends, supervisors, and coworkers

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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49)

Arrange the following service gaps as per the SERVQUAL approach in the logical sequence.

A. The gap between service quality specifications and service delivery

B. The gap between the customer's expectations and management's perception

C. The gap between perceived service and expected service

D. The gap between management perception and service quality specification

E. The gap between service delivery and external communications.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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50) Which committee had recommended a comprehensive framework of reform in the insurance sector?

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51) A multinational company can use which prices to create profits in low tax regimes and losses in high tax regimes?

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52) When the income of a minor child is clubbed with the income of the mother or father. how much the deduction will be allowed to the mother or father?

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53) Who was of the opinion that labor was "the father of wealth" and it must be included in any estimate of national wealth?

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54)

Which are the RBI-notified domestic accredited credit rating agencies?

A. Brickwork ratings

B. Acvite ratings

C. CRISIL ratings

D. Standard and Poor's

E. Moody's

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

55 / 100

55)

Starting from the earliest, sequence the steps taken to develop the money market in India

A. Introduction of Interest Rate Swaps (IRS)

B. Introduction of Commercial Paper

C. Introduction of Ways and Means Advances (WMA) linked to bank rate

D. Introduction of Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

E. Implementation of Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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56)

Which of the following are the characteristics of the Euro Currency market?

A. The euro currency market does not have geographical limits

B. The euro currency market is unregulated

C. The euro currency market does not have deposit insurance

D. There are no restrictions on the maximum interest payable or chargeable.

E. The euro currency market does not attract CRR and SLR restrictions.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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57)

The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023 revamped the Competition Act in which of the following perspectives:

A. The CCI needs to be intimated if the value of the merger and acquisition deal exceeds Rs. 2000 crores

B. The overall timeline for the assessment of the combination has been reduced to 150 days from 210 days

C. "Exclusive selling agreements" has been replaced with "exclusive dealing agreements"

D. Entities who are not engaged in identical or similar trade shall also be part of an Anti-competitive Agreement under Section 3(3) of the Act

E. Anti-competitive conduct like "tie-up arrangements" "re-sale price maintenance" and "exclusive distribution agreement" have been redefined.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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58) Match List I with List II.

List I (Consequent outcome)

List II (Taxation Perspective )

A.

The person is liable to penalty and prosecution

I.

Tax management

B.

Tax गs reduced by taking advantage of loopholes in the law

II.

Tax Avoidance

C.

The main aim is compliance with legal formalities

III.

Tax Evasion

D.

It is a guide for decision-making

IV.

Tax planning

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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59) A point estimator is said to be consistent when ______.

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60) Which one group of the following countries are members of ASEAN?

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61) Match List I with List II.

The list I (Purpose)

List II (Committee)

A.

Study all aspects of Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)

I.

Rashid Jilani Committee (1992)

B.

Working group on NBFCs

II.

Sodauni Committee (1994)

C.

Suggest alternate methods of Lending

III.

Malegam Committee (1995)

D.

Expert group on Foreign exchange markets

IV.

Shere Committee (1995)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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62)

Sequence the following steps in the operational functioning of the Asset reconstruction companies (as per SARFAESI Act 2002)

A. Charge a 2 percent management fee

B. Issue security receipts to the bank

C. Make payment to bank

D. Buys loans from the bank at a discount

E. Carry out the recovery

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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63)

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R

Assertion A: Usually manufacturing companies use sale and lease back arrangements to unlock investment in fixed assets.

Reason R: In a sale of lease back arrangement, the companies sell the asset to a leasing company, and lease it back to enjoy the uninterrupted use of the asset in their business.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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64) The following is an uncommon feature of Private Equity and Venture Capital.

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65) An attacking strategy that involves introducing new products or technologies that rewrite the rules of competition in the market and avoid direct conflict with a rival is known as ______

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66) Empirical studies indicate that the long-run average cost (LAC) curve is _______.

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67) In the process of perception, which one of the following is not an external factor influencing the selection of stimuli?

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68)

Section 61 to 64 of the Company Act 2013 states 'Alteration proper' which includes:

A. Cancellation of the unissued shares

B. Cancellation of issued shares

C. Increase in share capital by issue of new share

D. Decrease of share capital by redemption of shares

E. Conversion of fully paid shares into stock and vice versa.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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69) Match List I with List II.

List I (Retail Store format)

List II (Product assortment)

A.

Discount

I.

Very narrow and deep

B.

Specialty

II.

Broad and shallow

C.

Category Killer

III.

Broad and deep

D.

Supermarket

IV.

Narrow and very deep

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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70) 'A' sells a mobile phone to 'B', a minor who pays for it by his cheque. 'A' endorses the cheque to 'C' who takes it in good faith and for value. The cheque is dishonored on presentation. Can 'C' enforce payment of the cheque?

71 / 100

71)

Arrange the following steps in a logical sequence in recourse to dishonoring a negotiable instrument:

A. Noting

B. Compensation

C. Protesting

D. Notice of dishonor

E. Penalties

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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72) The practice of setting a price target by the firm and then developing a product that would allow the firm to maximize total profits at that price is called ______.

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73) The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) facilitates and promotes foreign trade in India and implements the foreign trade policy of India. Which of the following union ministry governs the DGFT?

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74) Match List I with List II.

List I (Motive of human behavior in organizations)

List II (Characteristic) 

A.

Achievement

I.

Concern for others

B.

Control

II.

Concern for self-development

C.

Extension

III.

Concern for excellence

D.

Dependency

IV.

Concern for orderliness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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75)

Which is the legal framework governing the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)

A. Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976

B. Regional Rural Banks Act, 1966

C. Small Industries Development Bank of India, 1989

D. Banking Regulations Act, 1949

E. Indian Partnership Act, 1932

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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76)

In the context of the banking sector, the spread is defined as a function of the following:

A. Forex

B. Net Interest income

C. Rate Sensitive Assets

D. Asset Ratio

E. Leverage Ratio

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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77)

To remove 'order bias' in a questionnaire, usually researcher use which of the following:

A. Pivot questions

B. Multiple grid questions

C. Funnel technique

D. Filter questions

E. Leading questions

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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78) In totalitarianism, called authoritarianism. individual freedom is subordinated to the power of the authority of a group or state. Which of the following is not a type of totalitarianism?

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79) Match List I with List II.

List I (Herfindahe Index Value)

List II (Market Type)

A.

Zero

I.

Oligopoly with high risk of cartel

B.

0 - 1,000

II.

Oligopoly

C.

1,000 - 1,800

III.

Monopolistic competition

D.

1,800 - 10,000

IV.

Extremely competitive market

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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80)

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R-

Assertion A: By removing barriers between national markets, trading blocks create competition due to bigger trading areas.

Reason R: Increased competition can lead to the closure of local industry and harm domestic consumption.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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81) A and B are equal partners, when the partnership is dissolved, their capital is Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively. After all, assets are sold and liabilities are paid. there is a cash balance of Rs. 80,000. What is the amount of profit or loss on realization?

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82)

Which of the following are the tools for consumer promotions?

A. Price off

B. Refunds

C. Coupons

D. Event sponsorship

E. Off-invoice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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83) Which one of the following values is not a part of the OCTAPACE framework?

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84) Mutual Funds in India are regulated by:

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85)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Certificate of incorporation is conclusive evidence that all the requirements of the Companies Act have been complied with in respect of registration.

Statement II: After incorporation, if the company makes a fresh contract in terms of the pre-incorporation contract, the liability of the promoters shall come to an end.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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86)

The steps to be followed by a firm while strategizing to go international are as follows:

A. Deciding when to enter

B. Deciding which markets to enter

C. Deciding whether to go global

D. Choosing a mode of entry

E. Deciding how to enter the chosen market.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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87)

A box plot is a graphical summary measure of data that displays _____.

A. Mean

B. Q1

C. Median

D. Q3

E. Mode

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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88) On attaining the age of majority, a minor's agreement _______

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89)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The only purpose of logistics management is to coordinate activities of moving products from the factory to customers.

Statement II: Logistics management is only the responsibility of the marketing function.

In light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: